ACVPM Food Protection Practice Exam

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• Which toxin is responsible for ciguatera poisoning?
• A common source of Salmonella Enteritidis is
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by using a high quality sequence or genome as a reference to identify differences, this is known as _____________ analysis
• Which factor does not affect the diffusion rate of curing ingredients into meat products?
• Nosema ceranae is newer and has probably been around since around 1980. Which species is this?
• Which item is exempt from FSVP because it is already subject to USDA regulation at the time of import?
• What brings about completion of rigor mortis?
• Staphylococcus aureus illness typically presents with which onset after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin?
• What are clinical signs of Salmonella enteritidis infection in humans?
• What is the treatment for Cyclospora cayetanensis?
• Prevention approaches for Cyclospora outbreaks include which two broad categories?
• What is the term for removing contaminated products from the market during a foodborne outbreak?
• In the described Seriola rivoliana outbreak, what deficiency is implicated as the diagnosis?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Big 8 allergens?
• (T/F) With FSMA, FDA can rely on third parties to certify foreign food facilities meet US requirements.
• How is Hepatitis A diagnosed?
• Shellfish are often used as indicators for which bacteria?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Big 8 allergens?
• Which of the following is NOT a preventive control component of the Food Safety Plan?
• What prompted the establishment of NARMS in 1996?
• Before the chiller, carcasses are presented to inspectors after processing in what ways?
• What is the final step in the seven-step outbreak investigation?
• Approximately what percentage of US Soy crops are GMO?
• Which factor is NOT associated with foods at higher risk for terrorism?
• What threshold defines Category 3 in the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• What life stage does American Foulbrood affect?
• Which statement accurately describes the first step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• To prevent sporulation of Cyclospora cayetanensis in dairy products, which condition is required?
• How are anisakidae larvae killed?
• Pet foods are treated like human foods in that they are pure and wholesome, safe to eat, produced under sanitary conditions, contain no harmful substances, and are truthfully labeled.
• Which statement about FSIS regulated products is true?
• In the early 1900s, raw milk caused what fraction of food and waterborne outbreaks?
• APHIS require hot water dipping of some tropical fruit to kill fruit fly larvae. What is an unintended consequence/possibility from this?
• In 2007, Cyclospora outbreaks due to fruit juice occurred in which country?
• The FDA Egg Rule applies to shell eggs sold without processing.
• In the United States, approximately what percentage of people drink raw dairy products?
• Approximately what percent of water troughs on cattle farms are contaminated with E. coli O157?
• Which statement is true about sampling in large swine establishments?
• A VFD must include the approximate number of animals, but not the amount of feed to be fed. True or False?
• Adult laying hens typically develop clinical disease such as severe diarrhea with Salmonella enteritidis infection.
• Prior notice is required for importation of a food article before its arrival into the United States. True or false?
• According to the 9 CFR, are rabbits treated as poultry?
• Which type of bias occurs when the method of data collection leads to systematic differences between groups?
• In the normal, healthy animal, which body site is the last to accumulate fat?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the seven major FSMA provisions?
• In traditional swine inspection, how many FSIS inspectors conduct off-line inspection tasks and what is the maximum number of FSIS food inspectors conducting line inspections?
• In poultry, if antimicrobial interventions are used, chilling must be done mainly by ________.
• Who must perform all foreign supplier verification program tasks?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes foodborne illness from foodborne intoxication?
• In meat, which statement correctly describes pre-harvest and post-harvest stages?
• Paenibacillus larvae is best described as what type of organism?
• Traceback evidence in an outbreak investigation can include which of the following?
• FSIS designates a poultry operation as Category 3 if establishments have exceeded the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive during any completed 52-week moving window over the last three months.
• Intentional adulteration of a food product requires an aggressor who has access to the product and to a sufficient contaminant, and what other three conditions?
• The New Swine Slaughter Inspection System NSIS is a mandatory part of the Modernization for Swine Slaughter final rule.
• Which organism requires the highest dose of radiation to kill, and what is that dose (approximately)?
• How long do worker bees live?
• Salmonella Javiana is commonly sourced from which animals?
• What is the method used to test humans for Brucellosis?
• In laying hens, what is the typical outcome of Salmonella enteritidis infection?
• Irradiation can directly impair critical cell functions or components of DNA.
• Which of the following is correct regarding vaccines to prevent Salmonella enteritidis in poultry?
• At live animal markets in the US, which statement about custom exempt status is true?
• Which statement best describes FSIS's role in the USDA?
• Which item is required on pet food labeling?
• The current times/temperatures in the PMO are based on levels necessary to kill what organism?
• Symptoms of Listeria monocytogenes infections generally include which set?
• What is the causative agent of American Foulbrood?
• What are the clinical signs of ciguatera toxin in people?
• Which of the following is a possible symptom of listeriosis?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five regulatory actions used to stop foodborne outbreaks?
• Which step involves controlling the outbreak?
• Swine vaccination reduces incidence but is not 100% effective.
• Nosema disease is best described as which of the following?
• FSIS veterinarians are in meat and poultry plants in the US every day to ensure that only healthy, wholesome products enter commerce.
• Nitrite in bacon is a public health concern because: which statement is true?
• What is the most common etiology of pasteurized milk outbreaks, accounting for about 44%?
• Which of the following is NOT a common clinical sign of human infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• If potato salad is identified as the source of a foodborne illness, which organism is most likely responsible?
• In recall terminology, which statement is true for Class II recalls?
• Which of the following are potential sources of E. coli O157 contamination on cattle farms?
• Which surface disinfectant is more effective against human norovirus on surfaces?
• In Avilamycin swine example, the VFD expiration date is 90 days. What is the duration of use?
• Which organism ranked third among the top three organisms causing raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• Which group is NOT listed among the major insider threats?
• A positive phosphatase test on ice cream could indicate which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT an objective of HACCP?
• Which toxin is produced by Karenia brevis that causes neurotoxic shellfish poisoning?
• Molting increases susceptibility to Salmonella enteritidis infection by how much?
• Which of the following is a common cause of Clostridium perfringens food poisoning?
• The NPIS final rule includes a provision that prescribes maximum line speed rates under the NPIS to emphasize establishments' existing legal obligation to comply with OSHA laws.
• An outbreak in 2011 of Listeriosis that caused 30 deaths across 28 states was linked to which product?
• The Carcass Inspector performs offline inspection activities under NPIS. True or False?
• Vaccination of birds in event of AI outbreak is expected to do which of the following?
• Cyclospora cayetanensis causes what disease in humans?
• True or False: Some states prohibit sale of raw milk, while others authorize the legal sale of raw milk in some specified manner for direct human consumption.
• If eggs are diverted to pasteurization for life of the flock, how often must egg testing continue?
• Vibrio is often acquired from which food?
• Which mite is foreign to the United States?
• A 'qualified individual' for FSVP tasks must have what qualifications?
• Which foulbrood has the shorter susceptible larval window?
• External interest is a factor considered when triaging PulseNet clusters.
• A recall where eating the product may cause health problems or death due to hazards such as botulinum toxin or undeclared allergens is a
• X-ray irradiation can penetrate packaging materials and reach the product.
• About how many people die of foodborne illness in the United States each year?
• Hepatitis A and E have chronic infections in people.
• How does a VFD differ from a traditional prescription in terms of oversight?
• What is the typical duration of infection Salmonella in people?
• What is the prevalence of Campylobacter jejuni in poultry?
• Porcine stress syndrome results from what condition?
• Recently, a Campylobacter outbreak was associated with chicken liver. Why?
• Which pathogen is commonly linked to poultry?
• Stunning of poultry prior to slaughter is required.
• Which organism accounted for the largest proportion of raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• Which birds are AI clean or H5/H7 AI clean as part of NPIP?
• The maximum and/or minimum value to which a parameter must be controlled at a CCP is defined as the __________.
• Which of the following is an example of a radiological hazard?
• Tuna and Mackerel can cause which foodborne toxicity?
• A common source of Salmonella Typhimurium is
• (T/F) Vibrio vulnificus may produce wound infections among healthy persons handling raw shellfish.
• How long does a honeybee queen live?
• PRP stands for what in HACCP context?
• Which physical parameter is observed on the phosphatase inactivation curve?
• The Veterinary Feed Directive affects antimicrobials administered in which forms?
• Is secondary spread with human norovirus common within 1 to 2 weeks after initial infection?
• In the alkaline phosphatase test, what color indicates pasteurization was adequate?
• The ionizing radiation used to preserve food is which form?
• AGID testing is not recommended for which type of birds according to NPIP?
• What are four common clinical signs of human infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Disguising a contaminant by strong sensory properties affects vulnerability in what way?
• Traceback evidence in an outbreak investigation can include which of the following?
• INFOSAN Alerts are part of international actions used to stop outbreaks. Which option represents INFOSAN Alerts?
• In a vulnerability assessment, which of the following is considered?
• Which condition reduces chlorine's bactericidal effect when sanitizing utensils?
• Which clinical finding is associated with septicemia due to Salmonella enteritidis in chickens?
• How many Salmonella enteritidis cells are required to infect a chick at 3 weeks?
• Which statement about water activity aw is correct?
• Cross-contamination in the kitchen can be avoided by which practice?
• What groups of people are more susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which practice helps exclude and discourage pests around fresh produce production?
• What is the source of ergotism (Claviceps purpurea)?
• Which statement about raw milk outbreaks is true?
• In HACCP, which term describes activities other than monitoring that determine the validity of the HACCP plan and that the system is operating according to the plan?
• The first reported human case of RB51 brucellosis in the United States occurred in 2017.
• Which is a preliminary task in developing a HACCP plan?
• What is an example of a VFD drug used to treat American Foulbrood in honeybees?
• Which statement accurately describes labeling requirements for GMOs in the United States?
• What are results of FSIS directed sampling programs used for?
• Which organization expands and maintains access to foreign markets for US agricultural products by removing trade barriers and enforcing rights under existing trade agreements?
• Which of the following is exempt from the Foreign Supplier Verification Program (FSVP) rule?
• What is the standard HTST pasteurization condition used as a baseline in PMO?
• Approximately what percentage of pig farms in the United States have tested positive for Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which of the following is not listed as a Hepatitis A prevention measure?
• Colony Collapse Disorder is multi-factorial and in part due to what two things?
• Under the FSMA Intentional Adulteration Rule, what is required to maintain a food defense plan?
• Which disease is indicated by white, fluffy brood that becomes dry, white mummies?
• Who does the Salmonella Verification Testing Program apply to?
• Food safety hazards are typically categorized into which three broad types?
• Humane handling applies to livestock and poultry.
• Which item is a long shelf life product?
• Which statement about FDA regulation of GMO salmon is correct?
• Positive predictive value is defined as the proportion of true positives among those who test positive. Which formula correctly expresses PPV?
• Which process breaks fat globules into smaller particles and prevents cream from rising to the top?
• Which agencies would have oversight at harvest for livestock and poultry cells for cell cultured meat?
• What internal cooking temperature should chicken liver reach to avoid infection?
• Foodborne illness is mostly just a stomach ache.
• Beekeepers can treat Varroa with synthetic acaricides without involvement of a veterinarian.
• Which operation would be Category 1 under the specified criteria?
• Eggs can be a source of which bacteria?
• Which component deals with rapid removal of adulterated or misbranded products from the market?
• The microorganism most resistant to ionizing radiation is:
• Which of the following is true about the 5 non-foodborne transmission routes list?
• Preventative controls with HACCP are primarily concerned with controlling the ______.
• What is the required action after four consecutive negative egg tests following a positive status?
• Which recall category is used when there is a health hazard with a remote probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food?
• Which product category is not covered by USDA-FSIS oversight?
• The most important single protective measure for food handlers to follow is:
• Which group is least susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which agency only oversees plant GMOs and requires reporting of plant-incorporated protectants (PIP) and disclosure of MCAN?
• BMRT stands for Brucellosis Milk Ring Test.
• When CDC triages PulseNet clusters, which of the following factors is considered?
• Live animal markets disproportionately affect which populations?
• Which major biosecurity point is one of the four to protect birds from avian influenza?
• Which statement best describes how to minimize growth of Salmonella enteritidis in eggs after laying?
• How long do Salmonellosis symptoms typically last in people?
• A VFD expiration can be extended beyond 6 months if the veterinarian deems appropriate.
• How is Varroa infestation most commonly diagnosed in a colony?
• Which is the second step in an outbreak investigation?
• Which commodities are explicitly excluded from the FSMA Produce Safety Rule?
• The three genera most frequently documented as causative agents of human bacterial origin foodborne illness in the US are?
• If confirmed positive, the milk must be discarded and the producer pays for the load of milk.
• Eggs held on farm for more than 36 hours after laying must be kept at what temperature to minimize Salmonella enteritidis growth?
• Which of the following groups is NOT among the highest risk for Salmonellosis?
• What is the typical onset of clinical symptoms in someone infected with Campylobacter?
• Neurotoxic shellfish poisoning is caused by what organism?
• Which of the following is a human-specific agent that can contaminate food via human waste contaminating the food supply?
• What is a VFD drug?
• Which ingredient is explicitly cited as being imported from China and possibly linked to PEDV introduction into the US?
• Which is an ante-mortem condition that would remove a pig from ante-mortem inspection for disposal?
• The major eight food allergens include Milk, Eggs, Peanuts, Tree Nuts, Fish, Crustaceans, Wheat, and Soy. Which item is NOT among them?
• Who provides the risk identification in an outbreak?
• Do many large poultry slaughter establishments stun prior to sticking?
• Under traditional swine inspection, what is the maximum number of FSIS food inspectors conducting line inspections?
• The NSIS shifts agency resources to conduct more offline inspection activities that are more effective in ensuring food safety.
• The correct disposition of a bovine tuberculosis reactor carcass without visible lesions of tuberculosis is to:
• Which USDA agency is responsible for ensuring that the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged?
• The New Poultry Inspection System (NPIS) replaced the Streamlined Inspection System (SIS), New Line Speed Inspection System (NELS), and New Turkey Inspection System (NTIS).
• Which statement about critical limits is true?
• Which of the following is a reason we need laws regarding foodborne illness?
• Which test is used to determine Brucellosis contamination in milk?
• Humans can get RB51 brucellosis from drinking raw milk.
• As part of NPIS, written procedures for preventing septicemia/toxemia carcasses from entering the ______ and including sorting procedures. Procedures are incorporated into a ______ system.
• Which statement best describes the energy source implicated in the completion of rigor mortis?
• An additional biosecurity measure in poultry houses is to not allow employees to do what?
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne intoxication?
• Which of the following lists the three elements to establishing corrective actions in HACCP?
• The occurrence of coliform organisms in pasteurized milk indicates which of the following?
• Which Salmonella enteritidis vaccine, given to chicks, provides longer and stronger protection?
• PulseNet is?
• FSIS Ante-mortem inspections are performed on every animal to be slaughtered. Which of the following is a reason for this inspection?
• Which statement best describes the Codex's involvement in protecting health and fair trade and coordinating standards?
• NAD stands for Nonambulatory Disabled.
• What is a written record that documents noncompliance with FSIS regulations and requires corrective actions and preventive measures?
• Which statement is NOT a characteristic of a VFD drug?
• Which type of inspection is performed on the head, thoracic and abdominal organs, and the eviscerated carcass after the hide removal?
• Which regulatory body handles New Animal Drug Applications (NADA) and New Drug Applications (NDA)?
• RB51 brucellosis in humans has historically been associated with which exposure?
• Where do FSIS carcass inspectors work under NPIS?
• Which two viruses can be found in shellfish?
• Which of the following is a Big 8 allergen?
• Raw bovine colostrum is regulated as what?
• Which HACCP principle's purpose is to prevent foods which may be hazardous from reaching consumers due to deviations from established critical limits?
• Under FSMA, a food that is imported and then exported without leaving the port of arrival until export is exempt from the Prior Notice rule. True or false?
• What percentage of food allergic reactions are caused by the major eight food allergens (Milk, Eggs, Peanuts, Tree Nuts, Fish, Crustaceans, Wheat, and Soy)?
• A cull beef cow presented for ante-mortem inspection with central nervous system disease should be dispositioned as which option?
• Which statement best describes why large batches are a higher terrorism risk factor?
• Grade A milk that consistently shows bacteria counts in excess of the legally acceptable maximum should be:
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the FSMA Food Safety Plan?
• Which statement accurately reflects 9 CFR requirements for stunning?
• The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) is an amendment to which act?
• Which pairing correctly matches organism to the poisoning associated?
• _______________ are the only inspection personnel that can perform a disposition on a retained animal carcass excluding birds.
• HTST uses metal plates and hot water to raise milk temperatures to at least 161°F for not less than 15 seconds followed by rapid cooling.
• ____________ is that element of verification focused on collecting and evaluating scientific and technical information to determine if the HACCP plan, when properly implemented, will effectively control the hazards.
• When potable water is discharged into any reservoir, air gaps are essential to:
• What term describes the result of breakdown of fatty and muscular tissues and loss of the water-holding capacity of the muscle tissues?
• Which two metrics are used to evaluate production water?
• Ultra High Temperature (UHT) processing of milk is used to achieve which outcome?
• Ciguatera fish poisoning is caused by which organism?
• How many Big 8 allergens are there?
• What are the three outcomes for a FSIS post-mortem inspection?
• In an outbreak investigation, it is not just asking ill people what they ate, but also understanding how food is prepared at the menu or ingredient level.
• What is the key to controlling foodborne risks for shellfish and fresh produce?
• CaliciNet is the national database that contains what type of data?
• Which of the following is used as a fecal indicator in dairy product testing?
• Which agency has primary oversight for cell cultured meat products?
• Which microorganism is most frequently associated with human foodborne illness and can grow in salt concentrations as high as 15%?
• How do people get Cyclospora cayetanensis?
• Radiological hazards are a type of which hazard?
• Nosema causative agent?
• Raw dairy products account for approximately what proportion of dairy outbreaks?
• In what year was the HACCP Systems Final Rule for Poultry Pathogen Reduction issued?
• Electronic cell counters are used on goat milk.
• Under the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, food irradiation is considered a food processing method or additive?
• How does an electron beam irradiate food?
• Which diagnostic method is used to detect Cyclospora cayetanensis in stool samples?
• What is the best description of the difference between a CCP and a prerequisite in HACCP hazard control?
• Which of the following statements about Varroa mites is true?
• The RB51 vaccine increases false-positives in cattle serology for Brucellosis.
• Which two tests, aside from the California Mastitis Test, are used to test viscosity of milk?
• Which factor is not typically considered when assessing risks before planting a fresh produce site?
• What is the principal reservoir for nontyphoidal Salmonella enterica serotypes?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in chicken parts samples?
• Which of the following lists all three post-mortem inspection outcomes?
• Which statement best reflects the claim about synonyms for food irradiation?
• In milk quality testing, which property describes the thickness or flow characteristics of milk?
• Which of the following pathogens is commonly linked to seafood such as raw oysters?
• Fluoroquinolones are approved for use in poultry.
• In HACCP terminology, a hazard refers to?
• Target organism for HACCP with poultry as part of pathogen reduction (HACCP Systems Final Rule - July 1996) is the target organism:
• What syndrome can Varroa mites cause in a honeybee colony?
• True or False: Mouse fecal pellets have between 100,000-230,000 Salmonella enteritidis per pellet.
• What is the term for animals condemned at ante-mortem?
• Classic bell-shaped epidemic curves lasting weeks to months are typically associated with which type of product/outbreak?
• Salmonella enteritidis is considered to have a silent spread in poultry houses.
• Which of the following is true about the seven HACCP principles?
• Which HACCP step assesses each step of the process to identify potential food safety hazards and determine those that are reasonably likely to occur?
• Which two pre-harvest remediation methods are used when shellfish waters are contaminated?
• Toxoplasma is a parasite transmissible to humans by swine.
• What are common clinical signs of people with Salmonella infection?
• Salmonella is which type of bacteria?
• Which of the following foods has been rarely linked to foodborne outbreaks?
• What created internationally accepted standards for food production and safety?
• Which animals are observed in motion from both sides during ante-mortem inspection?
• PulseNet creates DNA fingerprints of bacteria isolated from ill persons using pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE).
• Under FSMA preventive controls requirements, food facilities are required to have a ______.
• Which of the following is NOT a stated reason to handle livestock humanely?
• What is the difference between a VFD expiration date and duration of use?
• A Critical Control Point is defined as
• Clostridium botulinum type E has been demonstrated to have a particularly close association with which food category?
• Less than what percentage of fish is inspected for species authenticity?
• Which two hazards are commonly controlled by cooking and hot holding in chicken?
• The oversight at harvest for livestock and poultry cells for cell cultured meats is shared by which arrangement?
• Campylobacter rate in chicken parts as reported is:
• Which statement best reflects norovirus shedding in asymptomatic infections?
• What are the 3 categories under the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• (T/F) Ionizing radiation, surface pasteurization, electronic pasteurization, e-beam sterilization/pasteurization, and cold pasteurization are all synonyms for food irradiation.
• What is a characteristic symptom of American Foulbrood?
• The statement 'Raw manure can be applied directly to the harvestable portion of the crop if it is not harvested until 3 days later' is:
• Which of the following is NOT an approved method of stunning livestock?
• What is the typical incubation period for Salmonella in humans?
• When a fixed sterilization temperature is used, which statement about initial contamination is generally correct?
• In triaging PulseNet clusters, which item is considered?
• Does pasteurization destroy all nutrients and enzymes in milk?
• Which two religious exemptions exist for stunning livestock before slaughter?
• Which population is most at risk for foodborne illness?
• What does the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance establish?
• Tylosin and Lincomycin are available over-the-counter drugs to treat honeybees.
• Certifications under the Accredited Third Party Certification rule are used by importers to participate in which program?
• Which statement best describes the effect of homogenization on milk fat?
• How many types of hemaglutinin antibodies are there for influenza?
• Studies worldwide have found E. coli O157:H7 shedding by grass-fed cattle relative to grain-fed cattle to be generally:
• Broadly speaking, which antimicrobials were the target of the Veterinary Feed Directive Final Rule?
• Scrombroid toxicity is caused by histamine due to what condition in fish like tuna and mackerel?
• What does NARMS stand for?
• Which sequence describes the recommended hive inspection method?
• Holding eggs on the farm at 45 F for more than 36 hours helps minimize growth of Salmonella enteritidis.
• Chalkbrood causative agent?
• A vaccine exists for Hepatitis A virus.
• Rancidity in fats is caused by which of the following?
• How many diseases/pests are considered by the OIE for honeybees that can be introduced through international commerce?
• Sea lions showing seizures and disorientation are associated with poisoning by which toxin?
• According to the FDA Compliance Policy Guide 555.425 what is the range of length (in mm) that is considered a hazard for the general public?
• Which act mandates labeling of allergens?
• Physical testing of each legal pasteurizer is required how often?
• Pullorum-Typhoid disease historically caused approximately what mortality rate in poultry?
• Transportation of chickens and poultry can lead to increased fecal excretion of which two pathogens, creating aerosol hazards for poultry workers?
• What is the standard percentage for the Salmonella verification threshold?
• Which statement about the efficacy of E. coli O157 vaccines in cattle is true?
• Tropilaelaps mite is associated with which region?
• Which Salmonella serotype is commonly found in chicken and chicken eggs?
• Which FSMA provision addresses the safety of produce grown or harvested?
• Which statement describes a strength of PulseNet/PFGE-based subtyping?
• Which factor is NOT part of the RTC definition?
• The monitoring activity (as part of HACCP) should provide reliable and definitive information on whether the _______ is being met or not.
• Which of the following is a normal time frame for environmental testing for Salmonella enteritidis in laying hens?
• Which of the following is a pathogen that may be isolated from raw milk?
• Which statement accurately describes the second step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• Which bias is a bias from a measurement error?
• Which of the following is a physical hazard?
• Which organism is specifically identified as associated with raw milk outbreaks during 1993-2006 among the most common pathogens?
• Which of the following is listed as a pro of GMOs?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Campylobacter in people?
• Finfish and crustaceans contamination source is typically:
• Codex Alimentarius is produced by which organizations?
• Vaccinating birds in AI outbreak can eradicate the disease and provide sterilizing immunity.
• What are the two testing criteria for production water under the Produce Safety Rule?
• As part of NSIS, establishment personnel are required to sort and remove unfit animals before FSIS ante-mortem inspection.
• VHSV stands for which of the following?
• A Standard Plate Count in milk quality refers to which of the following?
• Which option best describes the 'General subject matter' Codex committee type?
• Which hepatitis viruses can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
• Which of the following is NOT a synthetic acaricide used for Varroa control?
• Which of the following is a genus of cyanobacteria?
• Florfenicol is a VFD drug approved for treatment of which animals?
• 84% of labeled 'white tuna' in a US study were actually which fish?
• Electrical stunning configurations approved for livestock include which of the following?
• Under the National Poultry Improvement Plan, breeder sources of laying hens should be clean free of Salmonella enteritidis.
• Pet food/treats can be a source of Salmonella to humans. Which option reflects this risk?
• Which statement about HACCP hazard analysis is true?
• Which of the following is one of the three main impact points for produce safety risks related to production water?
• ___________ are any biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical agent that has the potential to cause illness or injury
• Which statement accurately describes the fourth step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• Salmonella Newport is commonly associated with which animals?
• Nitrite in bacon is currently a public health concern because which statement is true?
• Which statement best describes how growth phase affects irradiation susceptibility?
• Under NPIS, there is zero tolerance for off-line carcasses to have which two things?
• Hepatitis A virus has been implicated in outbreaks of which type of food?
• When potable water is discharged into any reservoir, air gaps are essential to prevent what?
• An outbreak of E. coli O104:H4 in Germany was linked to what product?
• Ciguatera-contaminated fish are typically found in which regions?
• Which species have the sampling minimum of one per 3,000 or weekly (smaller facilities)?
• Which of the following is a common contamination vector for milk?
• According to FSMA, how often are 'high risk' facilities inspected?
• Which bacterial pathogen is listed as carried by swine?
• Which recall class covers situations such as a minor container defect or lack of English labeling that are unlikely to cause health consequences?
• Which term describes the system used to identify hazards and establish control points to ensure food safety?
• Which of the following is a stated purpose of NPIP's national certification program?
• Verification/Validation activities involve which of the following?
• Longer and flatter epidemic curves lasting months are typically due to which type of product/outbreaks?
• Which of the following could be intentionally added chemicals that may be hazardous if improperly used during food production?
• Which areas are considered sensitive and should never be targeted by driving instruments according to 9 CFR guidelines?
• What is a significant change to product recalls under FSMA?
• Salmonellosis can cause acute gastroenteritis in people.
• Symptoms of listeriosis can take up to how many days to develop after exposure?
• Which of the following is a preliminary task in HACCP plan development?
• Which technique provides a higher resolution view of the bacterial genome?
• A recall category defined by a reasonable probability that use or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death is called a
• Onset of gastrointestinal symptoms after exposure to ciguatera toxin?
• What is the intermediate or paratenic host for anisakidae?
• Which clinical sign may be observed in chickens infected with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which statement best describes the susceptibility of Listeria monocytogenes to irradiation with respect to growth phase?
• Which of the following are recommended methods for preventing Cyclospora cayetanensis outbreaks?
• What does 'Passed for cooking' indicate in meat inspection?
• 1 in ____ Americans get sick each year from foodborne illness.
• What is a category II feed-use drug?
• Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning typically presents with self-limiting vomiting, diarrhea and cramping within which time frame after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin?
• Fertilized eggs in honey bees will develop into which caste(s)?
• Which statement is correct regarding infection and intoxication in foodborne illness?
• Which labeling item indicates nutritional adequacy for pet foods?
• What is the sampling minimum for chickens to prevent contamination?
• Chickens infected with Salmonella enteritidis at 1 day old will have persistent intestinal colonization, and by 24 weeks, about 50% will shed Salmonella enteritidis in their feces.
• Which statement about required contents by law for a Food Safety Plan is accurate?
• Which of the following is one of the seven HACCP principles?
• Butyric acid and other VFAs belong to which chemical category?
• Which post-harvest processing technique uses heat to reduce microbial load?
• Which statement best describes a Critical Control Point?
• In disease outbreak investigations, which regulatory agencies are responsible?
• Which feed mills are exempt from registering as a food facility under FSMA?
• US Congress appropriates funds from general revenues to pay for inspection for the 8 hours of each production shift during 5 consecutive days, after that, the establishment is charged.
• Vibrio parahaemolyticus is commonly associated with which source?
• Which is an example of epidemiologic evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• Which statement about food irradiation is correct?
• Which legislation was instrumental in reducing the amount of trichinellosis in humans?
• Which entity provides a national outbreak investigation network by connecting with state and local health departments, USDA, and FDA?
• What percentage of the US food supply is imported?
• Which is a mode of Salmonella transmission to humans?
• In dairy production, which statement correctly describes pre-harvest and post-harvest stages?
• What is the purpose of the HACCP flow diagram?
• About how many Americans get sick due to foodborne disease each year?
• Vibrio vulnificus infection risk is particularly high in individuals with underlying liver disease.
• Which statement about Hepatitis E and Influenza in swine is accurate?
• Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts are detected in which specimen?
• In regards to foodborne illness, maintaining a healthy, pathogen-free animal on the farm is which type of prevention, while cooking, freezing, pasteurization, etc., is which type?
• A ___________ is used to distinguish between safe and unsafe operating conditions at a CCP.
• Which kind of milk is covered in the PMO?
• Which country currently dominates aquaculture?
• Which of the following is NOT a synthetic acaricide used for Varroa control?
• What is the primary mechanism by which irradiation kills microorganisms?
• Three indicator organisms recommended for swine slaughter sampling?
• Which of the following organisms was NOT among the top three causes of raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• Which of the following is NOT a reported way avian influenza is spread?
• What is the incubation period for Hepatitis A virus?
• Which of the following is an example of an insider threat indicator?
• States regulate all milk products produced and sold within state lines but sales over state lines are under federal oversight.
• Trypanosomiasis can be acquired via ingestion of contaminated food or drink.
• _______ is those activities, other than monitoring, that determine the validity of the HACCP plan and that the system is operating according to the plan.
• European Foulbrood larvae susceptible window?
• Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic factor affecting microbial survival in foods?
• Which statement best describes norovirus infectious dose and shedding in asymptomatic infections?
• In 2005 in Santa Catarina, what were the reported outcomes of the Cyclospora outbreak linked to sugar cane juice?
• What term describes the action when a product with a minor violation is removed from the market or corrected, such as tampering without evidence of manufacturing or distribution problems?
• What are the actions to take in the event of a foodborne outbreak?
• If a VFD expiration date is not specified on the product label, the longest it may be fed is?
• Which statement regarding histamine poisoning from fish is true?
• What is the recommended policy for therapy dog programs regarding dogs fed raw meat?
• One element of the NPIS is that establishments sort and remove unacceptable carcasses and parts.
• Onset of neurological signs after exposure to ciguatera toxin?
• Which HACCP principle involves confirming that the HACCP system is functioning effectively?
• Which of the following is listed as a benefit of eating fish?
• Which statement is true about Tilmicosin's VFD uses?
• Abnormal animals during ante-mortem inspection are ______.
• Which of the following best describes a physical hazard?
• Which antibiotic is the only one listed as a medicated feed product for honeybees?
• Participation in NPIP is voluntary; participants must agree to meet standards if they choose to participate.
• Which birds receive the Salmonella enteritidis vaccine that reduces fecal shedding by protecting ovaries and oviduct?
• Freezing point determination of milk is useful for:
• Which statement about the Big 8 allergens is correct?
• Which combination of symptoms is characteristic of scrombroid toxicity?
• Which combination accurately reflects the reported prevalences?
• Salmonella Typhi is primarily sourced from which?
• What is the HEV case fatality rate in the general population and in pregnant women?
• E. coli O157 illness is most often linked to which product category?
• Which of the following is the etiologic agent associated with a seafood poisoning that presents with tingling sensations?
• Which of the following is a typical indicator of rancidity in dairy fat products?
• Which FSMA rule establishes a voluntary program for accrediting third-party auditors to conduct food safety audits and certify foreign facilities?
• Why is sampling performed in FSIS inspections?
• Under NPIS, unacceptable carcasses are removed where?
• Which of the following is a Grade A dairy product?
• Which component provides ongoing monitoring of controls?
• Which of the following is NOT identified as a contamination route for milk after leaving the cow?
• An outbreak in 2008 linked to Mexican hot peppers (or tomatoes) was due to which organism?
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by small piece-by-small piece to find differences, this is known as _________ analysis.
• A Notice of Suspension means FSIS may suspend inspector assignments at an establishment without prior notification.
• Hens can begin producing Salmonella enteritidis infected eggs within ______ days post infection.
• SalCURB treatment is described as preventing growth of which organism?
• Which antibiotics can be used to treat American Foulbrood?
• Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of a Food Defense Plan?
• Which statement about raw bovine colostrum is true?
• Histamine production in scrombrotoxin poisoning occurs via which process?
• Which of the following is a common source of Toxoplasma gondii?
• What is the age at which peak shedding occurs in laying hen flocks infected with Salmonella enteritidis?
• What do healthy bee larvae look like?
• Hepatitis A virus is infectious at which dose?
• Which life stage is affected by Nosema?
• Which of the following is a common source of Yersinia enterocolitica in people?
• Which factor would cause the Standard Plate Count to increase in milk samples?
• Which of the following best describes Codex Alimentarius' function related to international trade?
• What is the purpose of HACCP?
• What does NSIS require establishment personnel to do if they suspect an animal or carcass has a reportable or foreign animal disease?
• Which instrument has the capability of confirming the presence of a drug residue in the tissue of food animals with a 99% accuracy?
• Codex promotes coordination of all food standards work undertaken by international governments and NGOs.
• Probiotics in cattle for E. coli O157 have been shown to be effective. Which statement best characterizes this claim?
• Which substance is not approved in the US for Nosema treatment in honeybees?
• Salmonella Typhi is primarily associated with which source?
• Which areas are considered sensitive where driving instruments should never be used?
• Name at least 3 things a food facility can do to protect against an exterior attack.
• FSIS post-mortem inspection is an organoleptic (sensory) inspection.
• What type of food irradiation is ideal for processing whole chickens and turkeys?
• Who makes the final disposition call for pigs in a suspect pen?
• The mission of the ______ is to ensure the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and processed egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labelled and packaged.
• With the final rule for Modernization of Swine Slaughter Inspection, what is the mandatory component that all slaughter plants must adhere to now?
• How is Hepatitis E virus spread?
• Which of the following is a comprehensive prevention measure for Salmonella enteritidis in chickens?
• In addition to animals, Salmonella Typhimurium can be found in the
• FSMA requires food facilities to implement a written preventative control plan. True or False?
• What defines an outbreak?
• Which of the following correctly lists the three categories of animals that would be condemned at ante-mortem inspection?
• Fumagilin B is approved in the United States for Nosema treatment in honeybees.
• Which Vibrio species is typically associated with seafood and gastroenteritis after eating raw or undercooked shellfish?
• Foodborne infections occur when a pathogen invades the body after consumption of contaminated food. Which term describes this category?
• Which fish are specifically mentioned as linked to scrombroid toxicity?
• Which term is defined as the transfer of food energy from plants to herbivores and then to carnivores?
• What is the requirement for distributors to notify the FDA concerning VFD drugs?
• Dinophysis produces which toxin?
• Which statement is included in the probiotic definition?
• Which of the following is a non-foodborne route of transmission for foodborne pathogens?
• Which statement best describes a Class II recall?
• Which organism is listed third among the top four causes of death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• FDA is responsible for foods not covered by USDA-FSIS. Which category is included in FDA's purview?
• Which of the following is a method to prevent biological hazards in foods?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Campylobacter contamination in chicken and turkey samples?
• In the 'US Suspect' designation, what happens to the head and carcass?
• Under the FDA Egg Rule, what is the egg testing sampling plan described?
• Under FSMA, a Food Safety Plan must include hazard analysis, preventative controls, and which of the following?
• Which recall classification is defined as a situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences?
• Pseudo-nitzschia produces which toxin?
• Which of the following is NOT a required element of a recall plan?
• Which of the following is a foodborne pathogen commonly linked to deli meats and soft cheeses?
• What are the three types of committees for the Codex Alimentarius?
• What tends to be the reservoir for Salmonella enteritidis for shelled eggs?
• What is the only effective control for viral hemorrhagic septicemia?
• Which of the following is not an intermediate or end product of aerobic metabolism?
• What term describes an act or condition that results in severe harm to animals, such as allowing stunned animals to regain consciousness?
• Which statement best describes shellfish as indicators of fecal contamination?
• How long must a veterinarian keep copies of all VFD orders on file?
• FSIS will designate a poultry operation of raw chicken parts/not ready to eat comminuted poultry as category ____ if they have achieved 50 percent or less of the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive during all completed 52‐week moving windows over the last three months.
• FSIS requires that cell cultured meat establishments meet all FSIS regulatory requirements for obtaining a grant of inspection, including those for the development and implementation of Sanitation and Standard Operating Procedures and Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) Plans.
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a consumer prevention strategy for Salmonella?
• Which two sources are used to produce gamma rays for food processing?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the life-threatening complications of Salmonellosis listed?
• Which statement about PMO adoption by states is true?
• Which organism is associated with Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning in humans?
• Histamine-related illness from improperly stored fish is referred to as?
• Which post-harvest practice slows microbial growth by lowering temperatures?
• Every tanker of milk is tested for beta lactam/cephalosporin antibiotics using FDA/NCIMS approved tests.
• Which of the following is a common source of Clostridium botulinum in humans?
• The standard HTST for pasteurization (161 F for 15 seconds) is required to be increased for higher content products like heavy cream or eggnog.
• Pigs who are sorted into a subject or suspect pen must be inspected by whom?
• Which antibiotic is approved as a medicated feed product for honeybees?
• Ciguatera and Scrombroid toxins are destroyed by proper cooking.
• As part of NSIS, the new definition of Ready-to-cook pork products (RTC) is any slaughtered pork product sufficiently free from bile, hair, scurf, dirt, hooves, toe nails, claws, bruises, edema, scabs, skin lesions, icterus, foreign material, and odor which is suitable for cooking without the need of further processing.
• What is the most common cause of bacterial foodborne illness in the United States?
• How do X-rays irradiate food?
• This is the most heat resistant pathogen recognized in milk.
• House mice are highly susceptible to Salmonella enteritidis. Which statement is accurate?
• Raw milk outbreaks seem to disproportionately affect which age group?
• When generating hypothesis, what information do you want to collect (3)?
• Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDV) can live and be transmitted by feed.
• What organism causes ergotism?
• Which statement best defines Food Safety?
• Which statement best describes Salmonella enteritidis vaccination policy under the FDA Egg Rule?
• Hemolytic uremic syndrome and Guillain-Barre syndrome can come from drinking raw milk.
• What is the typical duration of Campylobacter infection in people?
• Norovirus outbreaks linked to produce typically originate at the farm level.
• Which agency oversees cell collection, cell banking, and cell culture for cell cultured meats?
• During depuration, where are shellfish moved?
• (T/F) Gamma rays can be used to irradiate food.
• Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning is caused by which organism, and what toxin does it produce?
• Norovirus accounts for approximately what percent of pasteurized milk outbreaks?
• Which of the following is not a result of exsanguination?
• How is a post-mortem FSIS inspection done?
• Hepatitis A can cause fulminant hepatitis and relapsing hepatitis.
• Mahimahi and sardines can cause scrombroid toxicity.
• All FSIS inspected meat and poultry plants operate under what type of plan?
• As part of the NPIS, there are two FSIS inspectors assigned per slaughter line. What are their two jobs?
• Which option is NOT listed as a form of food irradiation in the material?
• Composting for use on produce must be a ________ process.
• What does NPIS stand for?
• What is a pre-harvest food safety practice used to protect consumers from drug residues in animals?
• Which of the following are examples of physical hazards?
• Which of the following is NOT a pasteurization variant?
• What temperature is required for rapid inactivation of Hepatitis A virus?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three elements of establishing corrective actions in HACCP?
• Where are eggs usually infected with Salmonella enteritidis in the laying hen?
• Prerequisite programs are designed to provide basic environmental or operating conditions necessary for production of safe, wholesome food.
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a type of microorganism that can contaminate dairy products?
• Which carcass type is exposed to the most microbial contamination during fabrication?
• Salmonella Poona has common sources including which of the following?
• Which diatom genus produces domoic acid?
• Which statement accurately describes the third step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• In the CDC's public health role, which of the following reflects its responsibilities?
• Which fish species are commonly implicated in histamine (scombroid) poisoning?
• PulseNet shares what type of data?
• Which HACCP principle involves listing hazards significant enough to cause injury or illness?
• What is an advantage of using aerobic plate counts for routine pathogen sampling in a slaughter facility?
• Relaying in shellfish sanitation refers to which practice?
• Which word best describes the pathogens encountered in dairy-related outbreaks from 1993-2006?
• Which agency regulates pet food, treats, and supplements?
• What are the two categories of disabled livestock according to the 9 CFR?
• Which of the following are integrated pest management requirements by the FDA for laying hen flocks?
• Grass-fed cattle will not shed E. coli.
• FDA treats foods derived from GMOs like those from conventionally bred plants and classifies them as generally recognized as safe.
• Which agency's inspectors are assigned to every federally-inspected processing/slaughter facility?
• FDA has approved the sale and production of GMO salmon in the United States.
• What is the best disinfectant for Hepatitis A virus?
• Which component ensures the FSMA plan remains effective and accurate over time?
• What are the 3 outcomes of an FSIS ante-mortem inspection?
• Mitigation strategies in a Food Defense Plan typically include which elements?
• Which statement best describes the Avilamycin example regarding expiration vs duration?
• To guard against exterior attacks, which practice should a facility consistently perform?
• Which statement is NOT true about NPIP-approved tests for Avian Influenza?
• Swine slaughter facilities must have an effective HACCP system.
• Who must verify that foreign suppliers have adequate preventative controls in place?
• Which agencies work together to investigate food safety issues and provide a framework for shared oversight at harvest for cell cultured meats?
• What is the typical reservoir for Salmonella enteritidis in laying hens?
• What are the two most common serotypes of Salmonella?
• The New Poultry Inspection System (NPIS) is mandated by the USDA as of 2014.
• Which areas are usually controlled in pre-requisite programs such as GMPs?
• The statement '(T/F) If the appropriate hazards are not identified then the HACCP plan may be ineffective.'
• FSIS labeling for cell cultured meats requires preapproval and verification.
• The NPIS is primarily for what birds?
• Which statement about Scombroid (scrombrotoxin) poisoning is incorrect?
• Which botulinum type is associated with growth and toxin formation at lower temperatures?
• Which organism causes Diarrhetic Shellfish Poisoning and what toxin does it produce?
• The 1975 turtle sale law prohibits the sale of turtles smaller than what size?
• The dairy product in which you would be most likely to enumerate Staphylococcus aureus is which?
• Which type of birds are the natural carriers of bird flu viruses?
• The value of salt as a meat curing agent is demonstrated primarily by which property?
• Pasteurization is the heating of milk or milk products to a certain temperature for a specific period of time. The purpose is to destroy disease-causing and spoilage organisms.
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Cyclospora infection?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three main impact points for production water risk?
• Who issues the Veterinary Feed Directive?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in Turkey samples?
• Which of the following are CDC outbreak response activities?
• Which law was signed in 2011 with the purpose of enabling the FDA to focus more on preventing food safety problems and changing laws for imported foods?
• NSIS requires establishments to maintain records on the total number of animals and carcasses sorted and removed per day, and the reason for their removal.
• Which pathogen was the most common cause of outbreaks from unpasteurized milk between 1990-2006?
• Bruising is most noticeable in which two livestock species?
• Which practice is essential as part of biosecurity to protect birds from avian influenza?
• Which crop is 100% dependent on bees for pollination at bloom time?
• Salmonella Dublin is commonly sourced from which animal?
• Bioterrorism becomes a choice of a terrorist organization when?
• What practice helps keep pests out around the packing area?
• Which Salmonella serotype is most commonly associated with shell eggs?
• Which statement best describes Food Defense objectives?
• During HTST pasteurization of milk, which condition is correct according to PMO regulations?
• Which pathogen accounts for the greatest percentage of foodborne illness in the United States?
• (T/F) Congress gave FDA more authority and strengthened accountability for prevention under FSMA.
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a common source of Listeria monocytogenes?
• Which animal is listed as a common source of Trichinella in humans?
• The neurological signs of ciguatera may persist for how long?
• Causative agent of European Foulbrood?
• Codex Alimentarius is based in what principle?
• Which of the following is listed as a pro of GMOs?
• Which food is a common source of Salmonella illness?
• Ultra Pasteurized (UP) milk is heated to not less than 280°F for two seconds.
• Outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis are commonly related to waterborne outbreaks and which other category?
• Cyclospora cayetanensis is transmitted by which of the following routes?
• European Foulbrood has a longer larval susceptible window than American Foulbrood.
• Under 9 CFR, livestock must have feed provided if held over how many hours?
• Which statement about dairy outbreaks is true?
• Which crop has approximately 88% GMO share in the United States?
• Pasteurization temperature/times in milk regulation are keyed into destroying which organism?
• Which of the following is an extrinsic factor influencing microbial survival in foods?
• Which signs were observed in juvenile Almaco Jack during the outbreak?
• Which crop is NOT listed among crops with high GMO shares (88-95%) in the United States?
• Which statement about Hepatitis A is correct?
• Lettuce has been known to harbor E. coli O157.
• As part of NPIS, young chicken establishments notify FSIS before slaughter of a new flock to allow FSIS inspection for ?
• GM salmon are bigger and grow faster due to genes from which species?
• The CDC's role in helping stop outbreaks frequently involves communications. Which of the following is correct?
• Is raw milk considered a probiotic?
• What is the name of the alert issued when a medical device may present an unreasonable risk of substantial harm, and in some cases may be considered a recall?
• Which of the following are examples of prerequisite programs for a HACCP plan?
• Animals in a stable physiologic state are generally resistant to Salmonellosis due to what (molecular level)?
• Which statement is most accurate about norovirus infections?
• Hepatitis A virus causes about how many deaths per year in the United States?
• Regulations on raw milk vary by state.
• NPIP stands for what?
• Which of the following is NOT an objective of the NPIP?
• The statement 'Human waste may be used on produce crops only if it meets EPA biosolids regulation (40 CFR part 503)' is:
• Salmonella enteritidis vaccination is currently mandated under the FDA Egg Rule.
• Which of the following is NOT a factor in the extent to which fat is incorporated into a stable emulsion?
• Rapid test and slaughter approach is a viable strategy for managing an AI H5 outbreak.
• In the positive predictive value calculation, what does A represent?
• Which organism is not among the top four causes of death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• NARMS sampling for resistant bacteria includes which of the following?
• During which period are chickens 100 to 1,000 times more susceptible to Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which birds are monitored for H5/H7 as part of NPIP?
• What is the best way to work with bees if you must examine the hive?
• Not a function of the VFD?
• True or False: Raw bovine colostrum has been associated with foodborne disease outbreaks.
• Which Vibrio species is most associated with severe infection in people with liver disease?
• Which agency would oversee food products incorporating cultured fish and seafood cells in cell cultured meats, and conduct inspections and related activities?
• Which hazards are addressed by HACCP?
• Which statement about CCP location is correct?
• Which of the following is a primary preventive measure for Hepatitis A in the general population?
• Which measure helps prevent farm-to-farm spread of avian influenza?
• Which outcome indicates a carcass is not suitable for human consumption?
• Under the Veterinary Feed Directive Final Rule, what were antimicrobial drug companies asked to do regarding production uses?
• Varroa mites vector which disease?
• Which seafood category is most implicated in foodborne illness and why?
• Which of the following is a potential source of physical hazards in food?
• Which regulatory action is designed to coordinate international response to food safety events?
• Which statement best describes the factors defining the source/quality for production water?
• The chief bacteriostatic agent in woodsmoke is which compound?
• Irradiation can indirectly form radiolytic products/free radicals from water.
• Humane handling falls under which CFR Part?
• A recall in which eating the food will not cause adverse health consequences (e.g., minor container defect, lack of English labeling in a retail food) is called a
• Which of the following is an example of an accepted composting method for produce?
• Humane handling laws and regulations apply to which of the following?
• All FSIS inspected meat and poultry plants operate under HACCP.
• Poultry and swine can be effectively vaccinated against Salmonella.
• Which statement best describes VFD drugs?
• Which processing method is similar to HTST but uses slightly different equipment and higher temperatures for a shorter time?
• (T/F) FSMA requires food from abroad to be as safe as domestic.
• The FDA Egg Safety Rule was implemented in what year?
• What is the typical onset of clinical signs in someone infected with Salmonella?
• Which gas is the only approved gas for stunning livestock?
• What is the new sampling requirement for large swine slaughter establishments (3 parts)?
• Which FSMA provision concerns the accreditation of third‑party certification bodies?
• Which of the following is non-Grade A (manufacturing grade) dairy product?
• Which statement describes a sign associated with Salmonella enteritidis clinical disease in chickens?
• More birds around cattle farms have been shown to have an increased prevalence of E. coli O157.
• Human Salmonella infections have been linked to dry dog and cat food.
• High fat content does not impact pasteurization temperatures.
• Which disinfectant is most effective for decontaminating surfaces affected by human norovirus?
• Which of the following lists three indicators of an insider threat to watch for in an employee?
• How is Hepatitis A virus transmitted?
• Which Salmonella serotype has a broad host range and is common?
• Which regulation oversees any type of GMO that impacts the environment and requires federal preparation of Environmental Assessments (EA) or Environmental Impact Statements (EIS) in certain cases?
• Under FSMA, the FDA can suspend a food facility's registration if they determine what condition?
• Which two parasitic mites are present in the United States for honeybees?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized route by which microorganisms can contaminate milk?
• Which statement about USDA internal cooking temperatures of meat is incorrect?
• Which statement about the Turtle size law is true?
• What is a category I feed use drug?
• With NPIS, continuous online bird by bird inspection is conducted by the FSIS ______.
• Which practice is a form of post-harvest processing that uses heat to destroy pathogens?
• Which test is used to determine if pasteurization is adequate by assessing enzyme activity?
• Which of the following is a way FSMA enhanced partnerships with the FDA?
• Which statement about RTC definitions is NOT correct?
• In what year was Codex Alimentarius established?
• Which statement about corrective actions at CCPs is correct?
• What category does an animal intended for slaughter belong to?
• Which FSMA provision focuses on preventing adulteration of food during operations?
• When does egg production begin in chickens?
• Which agency would conduct inspections in all establishments that handle cultured livestock and poultry cells to ensure products are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled?
• Who is the front line of public health in the US public health infrastructure?
• Which guidelines provide foundation for HACCP?
• FSMA expanded records access to improve recalls and traceability.
• Which Salmonella serotype is found exclusively in humans?
• Which agency oversees both plant and animal GMOs and requires notification, issue permits, and determinations of nonregulated statuses?
• Which post-harvest processing method is used to control Vibrio and spoilage bacteria in shellfish but may alter organoleptic characteristics?
• Which Salmonella enteritidis vaccine, given to laying hens, is specifically protective and helps reduce fecal shedding by protecting ovaries and oviduct?
• Which country requires stunning prior to slaughter for meat imported from the United States?
• Nosema infection is associated with winter mortality in which climate?
• Is extra-label use of veterinary feed directive (VFD) drugs allowed under certain circumstances?
• Each year, foodborne illness in the US costs consumers $6.9 (million/billion/trillion) dollars.
• Which statement about NPIS is accurate?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of processed meats?
• Which two seafood products are commonly contaminated with Pseudo-nitzschia?
• Which disease is specifically treated with a VFD-approved drug in honeybees?
• The feeding of microorganisms on dead organic matter and the organisms that subsequently eat the herbivores is called which of the following?
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Hepatitis A?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Trichinella in humans?
• What are the two types of 'terrorists' to consider in vulnerability assessments?
• What percentage of raw milk outbreaks were caused by Shiga toxin producing E. coli during 2007-2012?
• Which recall classification is defined as a situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences?
• FSIS designates a poultry operation of raw chicken parts not ready to eat comminuted poultry as Category 2 if the establishments meet the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive for all completed 52-week moving windows but have results greater than 50 percent of the maximum allowable percent positive during any completed 52-week moving window over the last three months.
• Toxocara is a parasite transmissible to humans by swine.
• What defines a Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) as described in the materials?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of microorganism that can contaminate dairy products?
• Under FSMA, FDA will not extend Produce Safety Regulation requirements to certain commodities. True or False?
• Which agencies regulate antimicrobial use in animal feed in the United States?
• The United States imports nearly what percentage of its seafood consumption?
• ________ is the planned sequence of observation to assess CCP control and to produce a record for verification.
• Which toxin is associated with Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning?
• Shellfish tend to be contaminated with human viruses from what source?
• Which of the following describes three ways Salmonella enteritidis (group D) can be spread within a laying hen flock?
• Can the yolk and outer shell be infected with Salmonella enteritidis from infected chickens?
• Which form of microorganism is generally the hardest to kill?
• Which method uses gamma rays produced by radioactive isotopes such as cobalt-60 or cesium-137?
• Who can perform reinspection of poultry carcasses and pass or condemn them in the FSIS post-mortem inspection?
• In the rodent index system, what does an index of 1 indicate?
• Vibrio parahaemolyticus is sensitive to refrigeration, freezing, and heat.
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne intoxication?
• FSMA was signed into law in which year?
• Which fish is associated with digestive issues when eaten in large amounts?
• Which agency is responsible for ensuring the meat, poultry, and some egg products are safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Salmonella in people?
• Which HACCP principle facilitates tracking of the operation, determines when there is a loss of control and a deviation occurs at a CCP, and provides written documentation for verification?
• What type of foodborne hazards broadly include pesticides, additives, and adulterants?
• Which of the following are the three functions of Codex Alimentarius?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of Codex committee?
• Which of the following is a recommended practice to reduce insider adulteration risk?
• Which microorganism spores are most resistant to ionizing radiation?
• Which statement about offline verification inspectors under NSIS is correct?
• What is Codex Alimentarius?
• Scrombroid toxicity results from bacterial decarboxylation of histidine.
• True or False: Ready-to-eat foods may pose greater risk of intentional contamination since preparation may dilute, remove, or destroy an agent.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the primary objectives of NARMS?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized option for flocks testing positive for Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which statement NOT listed as a poultry-associated foodborne pathogen in the material?
• Under NSIS, who is required to sort carcasses and parts that are presented to an FSIS on-line inspector for post mortem inspection?
• Which bias is introduced when the comparison group provides a poor estimate of exposure frequency in a case-control study or disease frequency in a cohort study?
• What class of antibiotic is specifically screened for in milk using FDA/NCIMS-approved tests?
• Name at least 3 things you can do to reduce the chances of an insider intentional adulteration of a food product.
• The 'Person, Place, Time' triage factor includes which elements?
• Which labeling item must be present on pet food packaging?
• The veterinarian issuing the VFD is required to have a Veterinary Client Patient Relationship with the producer.
• The NSIS implemented maximum line speeds.
• T/F: The mission of the USDA FSIS includes verifying humane treatment of livestock and fair treatment of poultry.
• When was the Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) passed?
• Seafood consumption has been documented to be a source for which disease in humans?
• PulseNet searches for similar patterns in outbreaks over which time frame?
• A custom exempt meat processor is defined as a processor that does not require continuous inspection because they only process meat for the owner; the meat cannot be sold and can only be consumed by the owner, the owner's immediate family, or non-paying guests. Which of the following best describes this status?
• Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with honey produced from rhododendrons. Which option lists this exposure correctly?
• Which practice would not align with recommended guidelines for live animal markets?
• Which classes of recalls typically have press releases?
• Public concern about GMO salmon production is primarily related to what issue?
• Which Vibrio species is an obligate halophile (requires NaCl for growth)?
• Raw milk safety relies on competitive exclusion by beneficial bacteria.
• Untreated surface water may be used to make ice for postharvest activities.
• Campylobacter can come from raw milk.
• A recall involving a health hazard with a remote probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food (e.g., foreign materials) is a
• Which of the following are symptoms of Nosema infection?
• Laying hens infected with Salmonella enteritidis usually have significant disease including watery stool and decreased appetite.
• Within Salmonellosis, when do symptoms typically start after exposure?
• Which Vibrio species is the most virulent?
• Which of the following is a common source of Listeria monocytogenes?
• In what year were fluoroquinolones withdrawn from poultry use?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized source of Vibrio cholerae?
• Which radiation is used to preserve food by ionizing energy?
• What VFD drug is currently approved to treat swine to reduce diarrhea associated with E. coli?
• How many Salmonella enteritidis cells are required to infect a chick at one day old?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of seafood?
• Which statement about botulism is correct?
• Which of the following is an example of a pre-harvest food safety practice?
• Where does contamination most often occur in outbreaks linked to fresh produce?
• What enzyme is used to test if pasteurizing worked?
• Approximately what percent of cattle feed is contaminated with E. coli O157?
• The phosphatase inactivation curve is used to determine if pasteurization is adequate; what indicates a good result?
• A vaccine exists for RB51 Brucellosis.
• Codex members cover ______% of the world's population.
• (Chemical/Biological/Physical) hazards typically result in injuries such as broken teeth, lacerations of the mouth, or choking
• What food is linked to 46% of foodborne illness outbreaks?
• Which organization regulates VFD drugs?
• In the rapid test and slaughter approach for AI H5 outbreaks, the intended response time is approximately how long?
• Which FSMA provision requires verification of foreign supplier compliance?
• The type of Clostridium botulinum associated with growth and toxin formation at lower temperatures is which type?
• Ultraviolet light used in food processing is most effective against which type of contamination?
• (T/F) FSMA mandated inspection frequency in addition to introducing mandatory recall, enhanced product tracing, and expanded records access.
• What is the prevalence of Campylobacter coli in swine?
• Vaccination for AI H5 is not a preferred option of control because of trade issues.
• Which of the following foods was not associated with a major outbreak in the material?
• Which statement best defines Food Defense?
• Regulations regarding hives positive for American Foulbrood vary by state, but in general hives are destroyed by fire. This statement is:
• A friend who dined at a seafood restaurant 3 hours ago calls to describe experiencing tingling and numbness of lips, tongue and fingertips. These symptoms suggest an etiologic agent of:
• What is true about ready-to-eat foods and terrorism risk, according to the material?
• What does GM stand for in the context of water quality testing for produce safety?
• Why are pork products less suitable for long-term freezing?
• Why is bioterrorism in food an attractive strategy?
• Which of the following is not typically considered a critical limit parameter?
• Pupal cappings in healthy brood are described as which of the following?
• Which HACCP principle will include a summary of your hazard analysis, your written HACCP plan, support documentation, and records generated during plant operation?
• Which option lists the three types of hazards considered in HACCP hazard analysis?
• Vibrio vulnificus septicemia is most likely to occur in which population?
• Under the Produce Safety Rule, if production water is supplied by a public water system, what testing is required?
• If a cow is down and nonambulatory, is it permissible to drag it consciously to an area for euthanasia?
• Market withdrawal is used when a product has a minor violation not subject to FDA action; which example illustrates this?
• What is the term for actions taken to return a process to control and to handle products affected by a deviation at a CCP?
• Which statement best describes a prerequisite program in HACCP?
• In scrombroid toxicity, which amino acid is decarboxylated by bacteria to form histamine?
• Which definition best describes Food Safety/Food Hygiene?
• Which agency is primarily responsible for risk management and regulation in food safety outbreaks?
• Which three portions of every pig must be inspected in both traditional and NSIS?
• In FSIS ante-mortem inspections, breeding animals, milking animals, and egg laying poultry are categorized as which type of livestock and poultry?
• US Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDV) was 99.5% to a ________ variant.
• In one study, dogs fed raw diets were more likely to shed Salmonella than those not fed raw diets.
• Category 2 designation includes what condition about the 52-week periods and the last three months?
• Since the 2008 proclamation and 2012 finalization, cephalosporin resistance has generally:
• What function do drones (male) honeybees perform for the colony?
• Which organism is listed as the top contributor to death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• Which of the following is one of the six diseases/pests considered by the OIE for honeybees?
• Dried milk products can be classified as which of the following under PMO?
• What is the new sampling requirement for very low volume swine slaughter establishments?
• Listeriosis in pregnant women is often characterized by which symptom?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in chicken samples?
• Nonambulatory animals must be separated from ambulatory animals to be slaughter, and have shelter provided.
• Under NSIS, there was a shift from which group on the line inspecting to which?
• Under FSMA, who is responsible for ensuring foreign suppliers have adequate preventative controls in place?
• What does 9 CFR Part 313 address?
• With the FSMA Produce Safety Rule, this regulation extends to hops, wine grapes, pulses, and almonds.
• In HACCP, if a hazard is reasonably likely to occur, what should you do?
• Which of the following is a risk to assess before planting a fresh produce site?
• The only foodborne disease required by international health regulations to be reported to the WHO is caused by which organism?
• Improperly canned foods are commonly associated with growth of which organism?
• Heat denatures most of the alkaloid toxin of ergotamine.
• Foodborne staphylococcal illness results from ingestion of preformed:
• Which organism is commonly associated with bacterial foodborne illness such as listeriosis?
• Which Vibrio cholerae serogroup consistently produces cholera toxin?
• What properties does the California Mastitis Test assess in milk?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Salmonella in people?
• According to 9 CFR guidelines, nonambulatory livestock may be stun or humanely euthanized in place.
• Which statement about NPIS is NOT true?
• Which time frame is considered pre-harvest for meat?
• Name an example of a radiological hazard.
• Which component of a Food Defense Plan focuses on identifying how a contamination could occur?
• Which organism has a 100% prevalence in poultry according to the material?
• Under NSIS, which statement about consumer safety inspectors' training and duties is accurate?
• Compared with raw milk, pasteurized milk has which nutritional difference?
• Which entity provides a national outbreak response team that works with state and local health departments, USDA, and FDA?
• Which of the following is included in the Egg Safety Rule's preventative measures in poultry houses?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of poultry?
• If there is no growth in food, there is no toxin and therefore no illness in which foodborne condition?
• Under NSIS, the establishment must identify animals or carcasses that have been sorted and removed for disposal before inspection. Which of the following is a valid method to do this?
• There are vaccines available for E coli O157 in cattle.
• Which statement about preventing Salmonella transmission in a reptile/amphibian facility is supported by biosecurity practices?
• Which bedding for cattle was linked to a higher occurrence of coliform mastitis?
• In addition to disease transmission, what is another problem caused by rodents in poultry houses?
• Honeybees are regulated as food animals by which agency and under which act?
• What is an element of HACCP validation?
• Under the Accredited Third Party Certification rule, certifications will be used for which purposes?
• Which processing method yields a shelf-stable milk without refrigeration?
• The feed manufacturer may not substitute a generic VFD drug in a combination VFD feed if the generic VFD drug is not part of an approved combination VFD drug.
• Which statement best reflects the requirement regarding unconsciousness after stunning?
• Which of the following is a chemical hazard?
• What are the three legs of evidence needed to solve an outbreak?
• The value of salt as a meat curing agent is primarily demonstrated by which property?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the major eight food allergens?
• Electron beam irradiation penetrates approximately how many inches into product packaging?
• Which statement describes post-mortem NSIS inspection?
• Which organization connects US agriculture internationally to promote global food security and enhance US import and export opportunities?
• Under NSIS, post-mortem inspection on the line is performed by which personnel?
• Under the FDA Egg Rule, what is the minimum flock size above which egg testing is required?
• Within how many days must corrective actions be submitted in response to a Notice of Intended Enforcement?
• Post-mortem inspections are performed on ante-mortem condemned livestock or birds.
• Florfenicol under VFD is approved for use in which animals?
• Which statement best describes the primary way fallout radioisotopes pose a public health risk for humans?
• The ______ inspector verifies compliance with the HACCP system.
• Salmonella enteritidis can be passed from hens to chicks via eggs.
• Which statement accurately describes the fifth step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• How often must the Food Safety Plan be reviewed under FSMA?
• Which vascular change was reported in the pathology of the diseased fish?
• FSIS sampling programs are performed for
• Probiotic products must be identified to what taxonomic level?
• Which typing pattern is used in triaging PulseNet clusters?
• Why was a federal law enacted in 1975 prohibiting the sale of turtles under 4 inches?
• An estimated percentage of maternal Listeria infections that result in abortions, stillbirths, or fatal neonatal diseases is:
• Which three genera are most frequently documented as causative agents of human bacterial origin foodborne illness in the US?
• Which statement about GMO labeling outside the United States is true?
• Tilmicosin is approved under VFD to treat which animals?
• HACCP is?
• Which option lists the five aggressor types that may cause intentional adulteration?
• In HACCP, _____________ ________________ are designed to provide basic environmental or operating conditions necessary for the production of safe, wholesome food.
• Which crop is noted as having GMO prevalence in Hawaii, such as a large share of papaya?
• When are chickens most susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which of the following is NOT typically used as an active surveillance method for Salmonella enteritidis?
• What are three safety considerations for cell cultured meats?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen associated with red meat?
• Which statement about the Foreign Agricultural Service is true?
• Which seafood category is typically contaminated due to infected food handlers rather than environmental contamination?
• Which statement best describes the prevalence data for Campylobacter in poultry and swine?
• What is the causative agent of Viral hemorrhagic septicemia?
• Which factor contributes to the attractiveness of bioterrorism in food supply chains?
• A critical limit distinguishes between safe and unsafe operating conditions at a CCP.
• During FSIS ante-mortem inspection, how are animals observed and how are abnormal animals handled?
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne illness?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the ante-mortem removal criteria?
• FSMA introduced which of the following enforcement tools?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four foodborne pathogens commonly carried by cattle?
• The description 'organics, metals, mycotoxins/phycotoxins/phytotoxins, food additives, nutrients, toxicants from cooking, and radionucleotides too' corresponds to which hazard category?
• Which of the following is a potential drawback of GMOs?
• Substitution for a generic VFD is allowed if it is not specifically stated on the VFD that it is NOT allowed.
• Under the VFD Final Rule, the overall purpose is to limit antimicrobial use to what?
• NPIS offline verification inspection activities are conducted by FSIS ______.
• In FSIS ante-mortem inspections, animals grown for slaughter are categorized as which type of livestock and poultry?
• Why is prevention particularly important for shellfish and fresh produce?
• Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with which exposure?
• After the initial 24-hour feed allowance, feed must be provided every how many hours thereafter?
• Postharvest water uses must have no detectable generic E. coli per 100 mL for which usage?
• If a facility does not notify FSIS of desire to switch by the specified dates, it was assumed they are choosing to remain on the traditional inspection and will be evaluated as such.
• What is an example of laboratory evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended biosecurity practice in a reptile/amphibian store to control infection and transmission?
• What are 4 post mortem conditions that would mark carcass for disposal?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended measure to reduce insider adulteration risk?
• Which is a common CCP location when dealing with microbial hazards in foods requiring heat treatment?
• Approximately how many Americans get sick from foodborne illness each year?
• Under the Produce Safety Rule, agricultural water must be safe and of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use.
• Which of the following crops is among those with the highest GMO share (roughly 88-95%) in the United States?
• Why are molluscan shellfish particularly prone to contamination?
• How can you diagnose Varroa in a honeybee colony?
• E. coli O157:H7 illness is most often linked to which category?
• Which of the following is NOT a clearly stated objective of Food Defense?
• A recall in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences is called a
• Human food by-products are not subject to the animal food rule under FSMA (except for holding and distribution) if what two things apply?
• The modernization of swine slaughter inspection specifically targets _____________ slaughter establishments.
• Which statement about fresh produce safety challenges is true?
• Which neurological symptoms may occur with Listeria monocytogenes infection?
• When chlorine is used as a sanitizing agent for utensils, its bactericidal effect is reduced if:
• Which of the following is a parasite of concern in fresh produce?
• What type of food irradiation is ideal for ground beef patties?
• Which statement best describes the public health relevance of fallout radiation through food consumption?
• Which option best lists the five-step general approach to Preventative Controls (from FSMA)?
• Which component addresses taking corrective actions when deviations occur?
• Which statement about lettuce and E. coli O157 is true?
• Refrigeration completely prevents growth and survival of Listeria in raw milk.
• A __________ is a point, step, or procedure at which control can be applied and a food safety hazard can be prevented, eliminated, or reduced to acceptable levels.
• Which statement best describes epidemiologic evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• In turned composting, what is the minimum number of turns during the active phase before curing?
• FSIS does not require preapproval and verification of labeling for cell cultured meats.
• Gambierdiscus toxicus belongs to which group?
• Ciguatera toxin is derived from which organism?
• What is the most implicated route of transmission for Hepatitis E virus?
• What unit is used to express the dose of radiation in food irradiation?
• Viral hemorrhagic septicemia affects both freshwater and marine fish.
• Who conducts the hazard analysis for slaughter facilities under HACCP?
• Which organization is primarily responsible for ensuring the safety and proper labeling of meat, poultry, and processed eggs?
• Which agency oversees mostly plant GMOs but also animal drugs, and conducts consultations, oversees New Animal Drug Applications (NADA) and New Drug Applications (NDA), as well as regulation of biological products?
• All worker bees are what gender?
• Which of the following is a factor contributing to shellfish contamination with human fecal waste?
• What does VFD stand for?
• What is the time window during which American Foulbrood affects larvae?
• Which is an example of laboratory evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• For cell cultured meats, which agency would oversee final products including cultured fish cells?
• Under the Foreign Supplier Verification Program, it is possible for third parties to certify suppliers.
• Direct contact with animal reservoirs includes exposure to which animals?
• Which two problems are caused by the mycotoxin ergotamine?
• Ergotamine is classified as which type of toxin?
• How do shellfish fit into sanitation programs?
• If a flock testing positive for Salmonella enteritidis engages in egg testing and one of the four consecutive samples tests positive again, what action is required?
• STEC can persist in soil and sediment, making testing of the farm environment feasible after harvest. Where can STEC testing be feasibly conducted?
• States can adopt PMO in part.
• What is the maximum number of positive Salmonella results allowed under the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• Which statement best describes the clinical symptoms of norovirus infection?
• African Dwarf Frogs are popular amphibian pets in the United States and can carry Salmonella. Which option is true?
• What is the definitive host for Anisakidae?
• Why was the NPIP established?
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by comparing a gene-by-gene (locus-by-locus) basis to find differences, this is known as ________________ analysis
• In HACCP, a CCP is a step at which control measures are applied to prevent, eliminate, or reduce a food safety hazard to an acceptable level.
• Grade A milk that consistently shows bacteria counts in excess of the legally acceptable maximum should be:
• The Salmonella cholerasuis vaccine used in swine is best described as which of the following?
• Which of the following is a source of Salmonella infection?
• How does the presence of oxygen affect food irradiation?
• The phosphatase inactivation curve measures the activity of which enzyme in milk?
• PFGE is still being used for subtyping most pathogens in surveillance except?
• FSIS uses what time frame to evaluate percent positive for Salmonella or Campylobacter in poultry operations?
• Which indicator is most indicative of anaerobic spoilage in meat?
• Do European Foulbrood larvae rope out?
• Which term is used when the association between two variables is due to the influence of a third variable?
• Which of the following best describes a FSMA enhancement?
• How many types of neuraminidase antibodies are there for influenza?
• Which statement about VFDs is true?
• Unfertilized eggs in bees develop into?
• (T/F) VFD drugs require professional oversight by a licensed veterinarian.
• Which of the following is among the six recommendations to reduce outbreaks at live animal markets?
• Which of the following is the tracheal mite affecting honeybees (Acarapis woodii)?
• Which FSMA component addresses control of hazards in raw materials and other ingredients before receipt?
• Which component addresses actions taken after a deviation to prevent recurrence?
• Biosolids used on crops must meet which EPA regulation?
• (T/F) VFD drugs are prescription drugs.
• PEDV survival is ingredient-specific.
• Compared with bacteria, viruses typically have which relative infectious dose?
• Sampling minimum for turkeys, ducks, guineas, and squab?
• What is FSIS inspector Generated sampling used for?