ACVPM Food Protection Practice Exam

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• Which component ensures the FSMA plan remains effective and accurate over time?
• Heat denatures most of the alkaloid toxin of ergotamine.
• What defines an outbreak?
• Bruising is most noticeable in which two livestock species?
• How many types of neuraminidase antibodies are there for influenza?
• Which statement about the Big 8 allergens is correct?
• Which crop is noted as having GMO prevalence in Hawaii, such as a large share of papaya?
• All FSIS inspected meat and poultry plants operate under what type of plan?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of seafood?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended measure to reduce insider adulteration risk?
• Which of the following is a common cause of Clostridium perfringens food poisoning?
• Under the Veterinary Feed Directive Final Rule, what were antimicrobial drug companies asked to do regarding production uses?
• Where are eggs usually infected with Salmonella enteritidis in the laying hen?
• Which of the following best describes a FSMA enhancement?
• 1 in ____ Americans get sick each year from foodborne illness.
• NPIP stands for what?
• Which organism ranked third among the top three organisms causing raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• Which statement describes a strength of PulseNet/PFGE-based subtyping?
• Freezing point determination of milk is useful for:
• Category 2 designation includes what condition about the 52-week periods and the last three months?
• Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with which exposure?
• Which of the following is NOT an approved method of stunning livestock?
• What is an advantage of using aerobic plate counts for routine pathogen sampling in a slaughter facility?
• Which indicator is most indicative of anaerobic spoilage in meat?
• Which processing method is similar to HTST but uses slightly different equipment and higher temperatures for a shorter time?
• According to FSMA, how often are 'high risk' facilities inspected?
• APHIS require hot water dipping of some tropical fruit to kill fruit fly larvae. What is an unintended consequence/possibility from this?
• Why is sampling performed in FSIS inspections?
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne illness?
• Which statement best describes a Class II recall?
• If a cow is down and nonambulatory, is it permissible to drag it consciously to an area for euthanasia?
• The most important single protective measure for food handlers to follow is:
• In FSIS ante-mortem inspections, animals grown for slaughter are categorized as which type of livestock and poultry?
• Which statement about VFDs is true?
• Pigs who are sorted into a subject or suspect pen must be inspected by whom?
• FSMA was signed into law in which year?
• In the CDC's public health role, which of the following reflects its responsibilities?
• Which option is NOT listed as a form of food irradiation in the material?
• Which two viruses can be found in shellfish?
• Food safety hazards are typically categorized into which three broad types?
• Under the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, food irradiation is considered a food processing method or additive?
• Which statement best describes a Critical Control Point?
• Not a function of the VFD?
• Which combination of symptoms is characteristic of scrombroid toxicity?
• True or False: Some states prohibit sale of raw milk, while others authorize the legal sale of raw milk in some specified manner for direct human consumption.
• Salmonella Poona has common sources including which of the following?
• Which post-harvest practice slows microbial growth by lowering temperatures?
• FSIS does not require preapproval and verification of labeling for cell cultured meats.
• Which three genera are most frequently documented as causative agents of human bacterial origin foodborne illness in the US?
• (T/F) Ionizing radiation, surface pasteurization, electronic pasteurization, e-beam sterilization/pasteurization, and cold pasteurization are all synonyms for food irradiation.
• What is the most common etiology of pasteurized milk outbreaks, accounting for about 44%?
• PulseNet is?
• Norovirus accounts for approximately what percent of pasteurized milk outbreaks?
• What is the key to controlling foodborne risks for shellfish and fresh produce?
• Which component provides ongoing monitoring of controls?
• Which two parasitic mites are present in the United States for honeybees?
• In scrombroid toxicity, which amino acid is decarboxylated by bacteria to form histamine?
• (T/F) FSMA mandated inspection frequency in addition to introducing mandatory recall, enhanced product tracing, and expanded records access.
• Which test is used to determine Brucellosis contamination in milk?
• Which two hazards are commonly controlled by cooking and hot holding in chicken?
• Causative agent of European Foulbrood?
• Humane handling falls under which CFR Part?
• Which antibiotic is approved as a medicated feed product for honeybees?
• True or False: Mouse fecal pellets have between 100,000-230,000 Salmonella enteritidis per pellet.
• What do healthy bee larvae look like?
• Hepatitis A virus is infectious at which dose?
• Which antibiotics can be used to treat American Foulbrood?
• Which processing method yields a shelf-stable milk without refrigeration?
• Studies worldwide have found E. coli O157:H7 shedding by grass-fed cattle relative to grain-fed cattle to be generally:
• Which is a mode of Salmonella transmission to humans?
• Which recall category is used when there is a health hazard with a remote probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food?
• Raw milk outbreaks seem to disproportionately affect which age group?
• What are the two testing criteria for production water under the Produce Safety Rule?
• Which Vibrio species is the most virulent?
• What is the prevalence of Campylobacter coli in swine?
• Humane handling applies to livestock and poultry.
• Which of the following are potential sources of E. coli O157 contamination on cattle farms?
• Dinophysis produces which toxin?
• Which two pre-harvest remediation methods are used when shellfish waters are contaminated?
• Colony Collapse Disorder is multi-factorial and in part due to what two things?
• Raw dairy products account for approximately what proportion of dairy outbreaks?
• Which signs were observed in juvenile Almaco Jack during the outbreak?
• Within Salmonellosis, when do symptoms typically start after exposure?
• What are the two categories of disabled livestock according to the 9 CFR?
• After the initial 24-hour feed allowance, feed must be provided every how many hours thereafter?
• Which statement best describes the energy source implicated in the completion of rigor mortis?
• Which kind of milk is covered in the PMO?
• PEDV survival is ingredient-specific.
• Each year, foodborne illness in the US costs consumers $6.9 (million/billion/trillion) dollars.
• What is the required action after four consecutive negative egg tests following a positive status?
• Rapid test and slaughter approach is a viable strategy for managing an AI H5 outbreak.
• The New Poultry Inspection System (NPIS) is mandated by the USDA as of 2014.
• Lettuce has been known to harbor E. coli O157.
• Which labeling item indicates nutritional adequacy for pet foods?
• Under the Produce Safety Rule, if production water is supplied by a public water system, what testing is required?
• Which of the following is a preliminary task in HACCP plan development?
• Which two seafood products are commonly contaminated with Pseudo-nitzschia?
• Which of the following correctly lists the three categories of animals that would be condemned at ante-mortem inspection?
• What does NPIS stand for?
• Which microorganism spores are most resistant to ionizing radiation?
• Which of the following crops is among those with the highest GMO share (roughly 88-95%) in the United States?
• Which practice would not align with recommended guidelines for live animal markets?
• An estimated percentage of maternal Listeria infections that result in abortions, stillbirths, or fatal neonatal diseases is:
• Which factor is not typically considered when assessing risks before planting a fresh produce site?
• Which HACCP principle involves listing hazards significant enough to cause injury or illness?
• Nitrite in bacon is a public health concern because: which statement is true?
• What prompted the establishment of NARMS in 1996?
• Grass-fed cattle will not shed E. coli.
• What is the name of the alert issued when a medical device may present an unreasonable risk of substantial harm, and in some cases may be considered a recall?
• What groups of people are more susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which statement about fresh produce safety challenges is true?
• Florfenicol under VFD is approved for use in which animals?
• Pet food/treats can be a source of Salmonella to humans. Which option reflects this risk?
• US Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDV) was 99.5% to a ________ variant.
• What is the typical onset of clinical symptoms in someone infected with Campylobacter?
• Which of the following is listed as a pro of GMOs?
• Which of the following is a typical indicator of rancidity in dairy fat products?
• In traditional swine inspection, how many FSIS inspectors conduct off-line inspection tasks and what is the maximum number of FSIS food inspectors conducting line inspections?
• Which is an example of epidemiologic evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• In HACCP, _____________ ________________ are designed to provide basic environmental or operating conditions necessary for the production of safe, wholesome food.
• Which agency would oversee food products incorporating cultured fish and seafood cells in cell cultured meats, and conduct inspections and related activities?
• What are the three outcomes for a FSIS post-mortem inspection?
• The NPIS is primarily for what birds?
• Which statement accurately describes the fifth step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• What is the standard HTST pasteurization condition used as a baseline in PMO?
• European Foulbrood larvae susceptible window?
• Under the Accredited Third Party Certification rule, certifications will be used for which purposes?
• Which option best lists the five-step general approach to Preventative Controls (from FSMA)?
• What are the 3 outcomes of an FSIS ante-mortem inspection?
• Grade A milk that consistently shows bacteria counts in excess of the legally acceptable maximum should be:
• Sampling minimum for turkeys, ducks, guineas, and squab?
• The 1975 turtle sale law prohibits the sale of turtles smaller than what size?
• Which of the following best describes Codex Alimentarius' function related to international trade?
• A cull beef cow presented for ante-mortem inspection with central nervous system disease should be dispositioned as which option?
• Which clinical finding is associated with septicemia due to Salmonella enteritidis in chickens?
• What is the purpose of the HACCP flow diagram?
• Which FSMA provision concerns the accreditation of third‑party certification bodies?
• This is the most heat resistant pathogen recognized in milk.
• What function do drones (male) honeybees perform for the colony?
• NARMS sampling for resistant bacteria includes which of the following?
• Which time frame is considered pre-harvest for meat?
• Hepatitis A and E have chronic infections in people.
• Which agency oversees both plant and animal GMOs and requires notification, issue permits, and determinations of nonregulated statuses?
• What is the recommended policy for therapy dog programs regarding dogs fed raw meat?
• Which life stage is affected by Nosema?
• In disease outbreak investigations, which regulatory agencies are responsible?
• Tilmicosin is approved under VFD to treat which animals?
• E. coli O157 illness is most often linked to which product category?
• Nosema causative agent?
• In dairy production, which statement correctly describes pre-harvest and post-harvest stages?
• When CDC triages PulseNet clusters, which of the following factors is considered?
• Which statement best reflects the claim about synonyms for food irradiation?
• The feed manufacturer may not substitute a generic VFD drug in a combination VFD feed if the generic VFD drug is not part of an approved combination VFD drug.
• Nosema infection is associated with winter mortality in which climate?
• What practice helps keep pests out around the packing area?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of poultry?
• Approximately what percent of cattle feed is contaminated with E. coli O157?
• Which type of inspection is performed on the head, thoracic and abdominal organs, and the eviscerated carcass after the hide removal?
• Which of the following are CDC outbreak response activities?
• Codex members cover ______% of the world's population.
• Salmonella is which type of bacteria?
• What life stage does American Foulbrood affect?
• The veterinarian issuing the VFD is required to have a Veterinary Client Patient Relationship with the producer.
• What are common clinical signs of people with Salmonella infection?
• Which statement about critical limits is true?
• Which country requires stunning prior to slaughter for meat imported from the United States?
• Which combination accurately reflects the reported prevalences?
• Regulations regarding hives positive for American Foulbrood vary by state, but in general hives are destroyed by fire. This statement is:
• Which of the following is NOT a factor in the extent to which fat is incorporated into a stable emulsion?
• Which organization connects US agriculture internationally to promote global food security and enhance US import and export opportunities?
• How many Big 8 allergens are there?
• X-ray irradiation can penetrate packaging materials and reach the product.
• A common source of Salmonella Typhimurium is
• HTST uses metal plates and hot water to raise milk temperatures to at least 161°F for not less than 15 seconds followed by rapid cooling.
• Which of the following foods was not associated with a major outbreak in the material?
• Which law was signed in 2011 with the purpose of enabling the FDA to focus more on preventing food safety problems and changing laws for imported foods?
• Which clinical sign may be observed in chickens infected with Salmonella enteritidis?
• What is the only effective control for viral hemorrhagic septicemia?
• Which bias is introduced when the comparison group provides a poor estimate of exposure frequency in a case-control study or disease frequency in a cohort study?
• What is the time window during which American Foulbrood affects larvae?
• Which of the following is NOT identified as a contamination route for milk after leaving the cow?
• The value of salt as a meat curing agent is demonstrated primarily by which property?
• Every tanker of milk is tested for beta lactam/cephalosporin antibiotics using FDA/NCIMS approved tests.
• In HACCP, if a hazard is reasonably likely to occur, what should you do?
• What is an element of HACCP validation?
• Which post-harvest processing technique uses heat to reduce microbial load?
• What does GM stand for in the context of water quality testing for produce safety?
• Which of the following is an example of an insider threat indicator?
• Which statement best describes norovirus infectious dose and shedding in asymptomatic infections?
• Within how many days must corrective actions be submitted in response to a Notice of Intended Enforcement?
• Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic factor affecting microbial survival in foods?
• Cross-contamination in the kitchen can be avoided by which practice?
• Certifications under the Accredited Third Party Certification rule are used by importers to participate in which program?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four foodborne pathogens commonly carried by cattle?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen associated with red meat?
• Biosolids used on crops must meet which EPA regulation?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of Codex committee?
• Which regulation oversees any type of GMO that impacts the environment and requires federal preparation of Environmental Assessments (EA) or Environmental Impact Statements (EIS) in certain cases?
• Which of the following is a method to prevent biological hazards in foods?
• In the rodent index system, what does an index of 1 indicate?
• Which of the following is a primary preventive measure for Hepatitis A in the general population?
• What is the typical reservoir for Salmonella enteritidis in laying hens?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of microorganism that can contaminate dairy products?
• Shellfish tend to be contaminated with human viruses from what source?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in chicken samples?
• Pullorum-Typhoid disease historically caused approximately what mortality rate in poultry?
• Why are pork products less suitable for long-term freezing?
• Which major biosecurity point is one of the four to protect birds from avian influenza?
• Which of the following is an example of an accepted composting method for produce?
• Which factor is NOT associated with foods at higher risk for terrorism?
• Which of the following is a chemical hazard?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended biosecurity practice in a reptile/amphibian store to control infection and transmission?
• Which of the following is the etiologic agent associated with a seafood poisoning that presents with tingling sensations?
• Which toxin is responsible for ciguatera poisoning?
• Which of the following is a risk to assess before planting a fresh produce site?
• As part of NPIS, written procedures for preventing septicemia/toxemia carcasses from entering the ______ and including sorting procedures. Procedures are incorporated into a ______ system.
• During depuration, where are shellfish moved?
• Which HACCP principle facilitates tracking of the operation, determines when there is a loss of control and a deviation occurs at a CCP, and provides written documentation for verification?
• An additional biosecurity measure in poultry houses is to not allow employees to do what?
• Salmonellosis can cause acute gastroenteritis in people.
• Which two religious exemptions exist for stunning livestock before slaughter?
• Which of the following is NOT a preventive control component of the Food Safety Plan?
• Which practice helps exclude and discourage pests around fresh produce production?
• Which statement best describes how growth phase affects irradiation susceptibility?
• Foodborne staphylococcal illness results from ingestion of preformed:
• Which item is exempt from FSVP because it is already subject to USDA regulation at the time of import?
• Why are molluscan shellfish particularly prone to contamination?
• FSIS requires that cell cultured meat establishments meet all FSIS regulatory requirements for obtaining a grant of inspection, including those for the development and implementation of Sanitation and Standard Operating Procedures and Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) Plans.
• What term describes the result of breakdown of fatty and muscular tissues and loss of the water-holding capacity of the muscle tissues?
• Is extra-label use of veterinary feed directive (VFD) drugs allowed under certain circumstances?
• Laying hens infected with Salmonella enteritidis usually have significant disease including watery stool and decreased appetite.
• Pasteurization is the heating of milk or milk products to a certain temperature for a specific period of time. The purpose is to destroy disease-causing and spoilage organisms.
• When chlorine is used as a sanitizing agent for utensils, its bactericidal effect is reduced if:
• Which of the following is a physical hazard?
• Which is a preliminary task in developing a HACCP plan?
• Campylobacter can come from raw milk.
• The CDC's role in helping stop outbreaks frequently involves communications. Which of the following is correct?
• Which option lists the three types of hazards considered in HACCP hazard analysis?
• Which organization is primarily responsible for ensuring the safety and proper labeling of meat, poultry, and processed eggs?
• Which of the following is NOT typically used as an active surveillance method for Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which statement about preventing Salmonella transmission in a reptile/amphibian facility is supported by biosecurity practices?
• US Congress appropriates funds from general revenues to pay for inspection for the 8 hours of each production shift during 5 consecutive days, after that, the establishment is charged.
• Which statement about Hepatitis A is correct?
• Electronic cell counters are used on goat milk.
• Histamine production in scrombrotoxin poisoning occurs via which process?
• How is Hepatitis E virus spread?
• ___________ are any biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical agent that has the potential to cause illness or injury
• True or False: Ready-to-eat foods may pose greater risk of intentional contamination since preparation may dilute, remove, or destroy an agent.
• (Chemical/Biological/Physical) hazards typically result in injuries such as broken teeth, lacerations of the mouth, or choking
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three main impact points for production water risk?
• Market withdrawal is used when a product has a minor violation not subject to FDA action; which example illustrates this?
• Which practice is essential as part of biosecurity to protect birds from avian influenza?
• Which statement about CCP location is correct?
• Prerequisite programs are designed to provide basic environmental or operating conditions necessary for production of safe, wholesome food.
• Which organism requires the highest dose of radiation to kill, and what is that dose (approximately)?
• Which birds are AI clean or H5/H7 AI clean as part of NPIP?
• Which labeling item must be present on pet food packaging?
• What is the new sampling requirement for very low volume swine slaughter establishments?
• What is the intermediate or paratenic host for anisakidae?
• Which definition best describes Food Safety/Food Hygiene?
• Salmonella Dublin is commonly sourced from which animal?
• Which agency oversees cell collection, cell banking, and cell culture for cell cultured meats?
• Which feed mills are exempt from registering as a food facility under FSMA?
• Which FSMA component addresses control of hazards in raw materials and other ingredients before receipt?
• Viral hemorrhagic septicemia affects both freshwater and marine fish.
• To prevent sporulation of Cyclospora cayetanensis in dairy products, which condition is required?
• Which statement about dairy outbreaks is true?
• Varroa mites vector which disease?
• In addition to animals, Salmonella Typhimurium can be found in the
• Which of the following is a reason we need laws regarding foodborne illness?
• Which of the following is one of the seven HACCP principles?
• Which recall classification is defined as a situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences?
• Pseudo-nitzschia produces which toxin?
• Which of the following is a common source of Yersinia enterocolitica in people?
• Which statement best describes a prerequisite program in HACCP?
• The FDA Egg Safety Rule was implemented in what year?
• PulseNet shares what type of data?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Trichinella in humans?
• Which of the following is a pathogen that may be isolated from raw milk?
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by small piece-by-small piece to find differences, this is known as _________ analysis.
• FSIS designates a poultry operation of raw chicken parts not ready to eat comminuted poultry as Category 2 if the establishments meet the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive for all completed 52-week moving windows but have results greater than 50 percent of the maximum allowable percent positive during any completed 52-week moving window over the last three months.
• Which Vibrio species is an obligate halophile (requires NaCl for growth)?
• Approximately how many Americans get sick from foodborne illness each year?
• What is the causative agent of Viral hemorrhagic septicemia?
• What is a written record that documents noncompliance with FSIS regulations and requires corrective actions and preventive measures?
• What is the typical incubation period for Salmonella in humans?
• _______________ are the only inspection personnel that can perform a disposition on a retained animal carcass excluding birds.
• Cyclospora cayetanensis is transmitted by which of the following routes?
• Which statement best describes Salmonella enteritidis vaccination policy under the FDA Egg Rule?
• Where does contamination most often occur in outbreaks linked to fresh produce?
• NPIS offline verification inspection activities are conducted by FSIS ______.
• Which FSMA provision addresses the safety of produce grown or harvested?
• Who must verify that foreign suppliers have adequate preventative controls in place?
• How is Hepatitis A virus transmitted?
• Which of the following is NOT a clearly stated objective of Food Defense?
• Which statement about USDA internal cooking temperatures of meat is incorrect?
• What does 9 CFR Part 313 address?
• Which Salmonella enteritidis vaccine, given to chicks, provides longer and stronger protection?
• What are the 3 categories under the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• What percentage of food allergic reactions are caused by the major eight food allergens (Milk, Eggs, Peanuts, Tree Nuts, Fish, Crustaceans, Wheat, and Soy)?
• Cyclospora cayetanensis causes what disease in humans?
• African Dwarf Frogs are popular amphibian pets in the United States and can carry Salmonella. Which option is true?
• Who conducts the hazard analysis for slaughter facilities under HACCP?
• The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) is an amendment to which act?
• Which test is used to determine if pasteurization is adequate by assessing enzyme activity?
• Vibrio is often acquired from which food?
• Seafood consumption has been documented to be a source for which disease in humans?
• How can you diagnose Varroa in a honeybee colony?
• Under FSMA, who is responsible for ensuring foreign suppliers have adequate preventative controls in place?
• As part of NSIS, the new definition of Ready-to-cook pork products (RTC) is any slaughtered pork product sufficiently free from bile, hair, scurf, dirt, hooves, toe nails, claws, bruises, edema, scabs, skin lesions, icterus, foreign material, and odor which is suitable for cooking without the need of further processing.
• Name at least 3 things a food facility can do to protect against an exterior attack.
• INFOSAN Alerts are part of international actions used to stop outbreaks. Which option represents INFOSAN Alerts?
• Which statement is NOT a characteristic of a VFD drug?
• Which agency regulates pet food, treats, and supplements?
• Which FSMA provision focuses on preventing adulteration of food during operations?
• What enzyme is used to test if pasteurizing worked?
• What is the new sampling requirement for large swine slaughter establishments (3 parts)?
• Which statement best describes shellfish as indicators of fecal contamination?
• Intentional adulteration of a food product requires an aggressor who has access to the product and to a sufficient contaminant, and what other three conditions?
• Which gas is the only approved gas for stunning livestock?
• Which form of microorganism is generally the hardest to kill?
• Which statement describes post-mortem NSIS inspection?
• Which of the following is a source of Salmonella infection?
• Which of the following is one of the three main impact points for produce safety risks related to production water?
• What is the source of ergotism (Claviceps purpurea)?
• Which of the following best describes a physical hazard?
• Onset of neurological signs after exposure to ciguatera toxin?
• FSIS post-mortem inspection is an organoleptic (sensory) inspection.
• Three indicator organisms recommended for swine slaughter sampling?
• Rancidity in fats is caused by which of the following?
• Live animal markets disproportionately affect which populations?
• Which is the second step in an outbreak investigation?
• Which agency would conduct inspections in all establishments that handle cultured livestock and poultry cells to ensure products are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled?
• Ultraviolet light used in food processing is most effective against which type of contamination?
• Under FSMA, FDA will not extend Produce Safety Regulation requirements to certain commodities. True or False?
• According to the 9 CFR, are rabbits treated as poultry?
• Swine vaccination reduces incidence but is not 100% effective.
• Which birds are monitored for H5/H7 as part of NPIP?
• Which two sources are used to produce gamma rays for food processing?
• Which post-harvest processing method is used to control Vibrio and spoilage bacteria in shellfish but may alter organoleptic characteristics?
• Salmonella Typhi is primarily sourced from which?
• Which statement best describes the Codex's involvement in protecting health and fair trade and coordinating standards?
• Which agencies would have oversight at harvest for livestock and poultry cells for cell cultured meat?
• Which factor contributes to the attractiveness of bioterrorism in food supply chains?
• FSMA requires food facilities to implement a written preventative control plan. True or False?
• Under FSMA, the FDA can suspend a food facility's registration if they determine what condition?
• In laying hens, what is the typical outcome of Salmonella enteritidis infection?
• When potable water is discharged into any reservoir, air gaps are essential to:
• A recall involving a health hazard with a remote probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food (e.g., foreign materials) is a
• In what year was the HACCP Systems Final Rule for Poultry Pathogen Reduction issued?
• Which commodities are explicitly excluded from the FSMA Produce Safety Rule?
• RB51 brucellosis in humans has historically been associated with which exposure?
• Which statement about raw bovine colostrum is true?
• Which statement is included in the probiotic definition?
• Which is a common CCP location when dealing with microbial hazards in foods requiring heat treatment?
• What are three safety considerations for cell cultured meats?
• Scrombroid toxicity results from bacterial decarboxylation of histidine.
• Which statement about NPIS is accurate?
• Which of the following is a possible symptom of listeriosis?
• Which statement accurately describes labeling requirements for GMOs in the United States?
• What tends to be the reservoir for Salmonella enteritidis for shelled eggs?
• The statement '(T/F) If the appropriate hazards are not identified then the HACCP plan may be ineffective.'
• What percentage of the US food supply is imported?
• The neurological signs of ciguatera may persist for how long?
• Ciguatera fish poisoning is caused by which organism?
• What is FSIS inspector Generated sampling used for?
• Which pathogen accounts for the greatest percentage of foodborne illness in the United States?
• The dairy product in which you would be most likely to enumerate Staphylococcus aureus is which?
• Norovirus outbreaks linked to produce typically originate at the farm level.
• (T/F) Vibrio vulnificus may produce wound infections among healthy persons handling raw shellfish.
• What is the method used to test humans for Brucellosis?
• Which birds receive the Salmonella enteritidis vaccine that reduces fecal shedding by protecting ovaries and oviduct?
• An outbreak in 2008 linked to Mexican hot peppers (or tomatoes) was due to which organism?
• In what year were fluoroquinolones withdrawn from poultry use?
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Cyclospora infection?
• Approximately what percentage of pig farms in the United States have tested positive for Salmonella enteritidis?
• What is the most common cause of bacterial foodborne illness in the United States?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in Turkey samples?
• Which substance is not approved in the US for Nosema treatment in honeybees?
• A Critical Control Point is defined as
• Which product category is not covered by USDA-FSIS oversight?
• What are clinical signs of Salmonella enteritidis infection in humans?
• Prior notice is required for importation of a food article before its arrival into the United States. True or false?
• In meat, which statement correctly describes pre-harvest and post-harvest stages?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a type of microorganism that can contaminate dairy products?
• Human food by-products are not subject to the animal food rule under FSMA (except for holding and distribution) if what two things apply?
• Is secondary spread with human norovirus common within 1 to 2 weeks after initial infection?
• Which organism causes Diarrhetic Shellfish Poisoning and what toxin does it produce?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the life-threatening complications of Salmonellosis listed?
• Which of the following is NOT a synthetic acaricide used for Varroa control?
• Which statement accurately reflects 9 CFR requirements for stunning?
• Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning typically presents with self-limiting vomiting, diarrhea and cramping within which time frame after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin?
• When are chickens most susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Shellfish are often used as indicators for which bacteria?
• Symptoms of Listeria monocytogenes infections generally include which set?
• Chalkbrood causative agent?
• Can the yolk and outer shell be infected with Salmonella enteritidis from infected chickens?
• In regards to foodborne illness, maintaining a healthy, pathogen-free animal on the farm is which type of prevention, while cooking, freezing, pasteurization, etc., is which type?
• Who can perform reinspection of poultry carcasses and pass or condemn them in the FSIS post-mortem inspection?
• Under NSIS, which statement about consumer safety inspectors' training and duties is accurate?
• What defines a Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) as described in the materials?
• Which of the following is correct regarding vaccines to prevent Salmonella enteritidis in poultry?
• Which statement is NOT true about NPIP-approved tests for Avian Influenza?
• Electrical stunning configurations approved for livestock include which of the following?
• How many types of hemaglutinin antibodies are there for influenza?
• Which agency's inspectors are assigned to every federally-inspected processing/slaughter facility?
• Eggs can be a source of which bacteria?
• Raw milk safety relies on competitive exclusion by beneficial bacteria.
• Salmonella enteritidis vaccination is currently mandated under the FDA Egg Rule.
• Which of the following is a Big 8 allergen?
• Which statement about required contents by law for a Food Safety Plan is accurate?
• Which term is defined as the transfer of food energy from plants to herbivores and then to carnivores?
• FSIS Ante-mortem inspections are performed on every animal to be slaughtered. Which of the following is a reason for this inspection?
• Which regulatory action is designed to coordinate international response to food safety events?
• External interest is a factor considered when triaging PulseNet clusters.
• What are the three types of committees for the Codex Alimentarius?
• In the United States, approximately what percentage of people drink raw dairy products?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized route by which microorganisms can contaminate milk?
• Do many large poultry slaughter establishments stun prior to sticking?
• BMRT stands for Brucellosis Milk Ring Test.
• A custom exempt meat processor is defined as a processor that does not require continuous inspection because they only process meat for the owner; the meat cannot be sold and can only be consumed by the owner, the owner's immediate family, or non-paying guests. Which of the following best describes this status?
• Which word best describes the pathogens encountered in dairy-related outbreaks from 1993-2006?
• Which agency is responsible for ensuring the meat, poultry, and some egg products are safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged?
• Which USDA agency is responsible for ensuring that the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged?
• As part of the NPIS, there are two FSIS inspectors assigned per slaughter line. What are their two jobs?
• What is the HEV case fatality rate in the general population and in pregnant women?
• In the alkaline phosphatase test, what color indicates pasteurization was adequate?
• Which of the following is listed as a pro of GMOs?
• What is the maximum number of positive Salmonella results allowed under the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• Foodborne infections occur when a pathogen invades the body after consumption of contaminated food. Which term describes this category?
• Which areas are considered sensitive and should never be targeted by driving instruments according to 9 CFR guidelines?
• Which of the following is a common contamination vector for milk?
• The only foodborne disease required by international health regulations to be reported to the WHO is caused by which organism?
• Which statement describes a sign associated with Salmonella enteritidis clinical disease in chickens?
• Which species have the sampling minimum of one per 3,000 or weekly (smaller facilities)?
• Is raw milk considered a probiotic?
• Symptoms of listeriosis can take up to how many days to develop after exposure?
• The first reported human case of RB51 brucellosis in the United States occurred in 2017.
• Does pasteurization destroy all nutrients and enzymes in milk?
• Target organism for HACCP with poultry as part of pathogen reduction (HACCP Systems Final Rule - July 1996) is the target organism:
• Which of the following is the tracheal mite affecting honeybees (Acarapis woodii)?
• If a facility does not notify FSIS of desire to switch by the specified dates, it was assumed they are choosing to remain on the traditional inspection and will be evaluated as such.
• Which bias is a bias from a measurement error?
• The NSIS shifts agency resources to conduct more offline inspection activities that are more effective in ensuring food safety.
• Dried milk products can be classified as which of the following under PMO?
• Scrombroid toxicity is caused by histamine due to what condition in fish like tuna and mackerel?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized source of Vibrio cholerae?
• Salmonella Newport is commonly associated with which animals?
• In the normal, healthy animal, which body site is the last to accumulate fat?
• Which Salmonella serotype is found exclusively in humans?
• An outbreak in 2011 of Listeriosis that caused 30 deaths across 28 states was linked to which product?
• Which statement accurately describes the third step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• Holding eggs on the farm at 45 F for more than 36 hours helps minimize growth of Salmonella enteritidis.
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Campylobacter contamination in chicken and turkey samples?
• Which organization expands and maintains access to foreign markets for US agricultural products by removing trade barriers and enforcing rights under existing trade agreements?
• If potato salad is identified as the source of a foodborne illness, which organism is most likely responsible?
• About how many Americans get sick due to foodborne disease each year?
• Traceback evidence in an outbreak investigation can include which of the following?
• Which statement is true about sampling in large swine establishments?
• Human Salmonella infections have been linked to dry dog and cat food.
• Humane handling laws and regulations apply to which of the following?
• Beekeepers can treat Varroa with synthetic acaricides without involvement of a veterinarian.
• Under the FDA Egg Rule, what is the egg testing sampling plan described?
• Which statement about GMO labeling outside the United States is true?
• Disguising a contaminant by strong sensory properties affects vulnerability in what way?
• Which of the following is a potential source of physical hazards in food?
• What is the incubation period for Hepatitis A virus?
• The monitoring activity (as part of HACCP) should provide reliable and definitive information on whether the _______ is being met or not.
• Which toxin is associated with Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning?
• Which statement about lettuce and E. coli O157 is true?
• In the early 1900s, raw milk caused what fraction of food and waterborne outbreaks?
• The feeding of microorganisms on dead organic matter and the organisms that subsequently eat the herbivores is called which of the following?
• Which of the following is one of the six diseases/pests considered by the OIE for honeybees?
• Onset of gastrointestinal symptoms after exposure to ciguatera toxin?
• Listeriosis in pregnant women is often characterized by which symptom?
• Which of the following statements about Varroa mites is true?
• What is Codex Alimentarius?
• Which organism is listed third among the top four causes of death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• The chief bacteriostatic agent in woodsmoke is which compound?
• What is the definitive host for Anisakidae?
• How are anisakidae larvae killed?
• Which statement best describes the primary way fallout radioisotopes pose a public health risk for humans?
• The three genera most frequently documented as causative agents of human bacterial origin foodborne illness in the US are?
• Improperly canned foods are commonly associated with growth of which organism?
• Which Salmonella enteritidis vaccine, given to laying hens, is specifically protective and helps reduce fecal shedding by protecting ovaries and oviduct?
• Ciguatera and Scrombroid toxins are destroyed by proper cooking.
• Which instrument has the capability of confirming the presence of a drug residue in the tissue of food animals with a 99% accuracy?
• Which organization regulates VFD drugs?
• Which of the following is non-Grade A (manufacturing grade) dairy product?
• Which of the following describes three ways Salmonella enteritidis (group D) can be spread within a laying hen flock?
• Swine slaughter facilities must have an effective HACCP system.
• Humans can get RB51 brucellosis from drinking raw milk.
• Salmonella Javiana is commonly sourced from which animals?
• Which of the following is a non-foodborne route of transmission for foodborne pathogens?
• The current times/temperatures in the PMO are based on levels necessary to kill what organism?
• Irradiation can indirectly form radiolytic products/free radicals from water.
• Which organism is not among the top four causes of death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• One element of the NPIS is that establishments sort and remove unacceptable carcasses and parts.
• A ___________ is used to distinguish between safe and unsafe operating conditions at a CCP.
• Vibrio parahaemolyticus is sensitive to refrigeration, freezing, and heat.
• Which type of birds are the natural carriers of bird flu viruses?
• GM salmon are bigger and grow faster due to genes from which species?
• Which practice is a form of post-harvest processing that uses heat to destroy pathogens?
• The description 'organics, metals, mycotoxins/phycotoxins/phytotoxins, food additives, nutrients, toxicants from cooking, and radionucleotides too' corresponds to which hazard category?
• When potable water is discharged into any reservoir, air gaps are essential to prevent what?
• Clostridium botulinum type E has been demonstrated to have a particularly close association with which food category?
• What is the prevalence of Campylobacter jejuni in poultry?
• Which of the following is not a result of exsanguination?
• Which agency only oversees plant GMOs and requires reporting of plant-incorporated protectants (PIP) and disclosure of MCAN?
• Which is an example of laboratory evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• Poultry and swine can be effectively vaccinated against Salmonella.
• In the positive predictive value calculation, what does A represent?
• Which statement about corrective actions at CCPs is correct?
• In FSIS ante-mortem inspections, breeding animals, milking animals, and egg laying poultry are categorized as which type of livestock and poultry?
• The modernization of swine slaughter inspection specifically targets _____________ slaughter establishments.
• Neurotoxic shellfish poisoning is caused by what organism?
• Which of the following lists all three post-mortem inspection outcomes?
• What is the purpose of HACCP?
• Approximately what percentage of US Soy crops are GMO?
• Which neurological symptoms may occur with Listeria monocytogenes infection?
• Irradiation can directly impair critical cell functions or components of DNA.
• Which of the following are integrated pest management requirements by the FDA for laying hen flocks?
• Which botulinum type is associated with growth and toxin formation at lower temperatures?
• What is the difference between a VFD expiration date and duration of use?
• Which of the following is a common source of Listeria monocytogenes?
• In Avilamycin swine example, the VFD expiration date is 90 days. What is the duration of use?
• What is the typical onset of clinical signs in someone infected with Salmonella?
• Which of the following are the three functions of Codex Alimentarius?
• Hens can begin producing Salmonella enteritidis infected eggs within ______ days post infection.
• Which foulbrood has the shorter susceptible larval window?
• In addition to disease transmission, what is another problem caused by rodents in poultry houses?
• What is the best disinfectant for Hepatitis A virus?
• Which crop is 100% dependent on bees for pollination at bloom time?
• Which statement NOT listed as a poultry-associated foodborne pathogen in the material?
• Which organism has a 100% prevalence in poultry according to the material?
• Which method uses gamma rays produced by radioactive isotopes such as cobalt-60 or cesium-137?
• If eggs are diverted to pasteurization for life of the flock, how often must egg testing continue?
• What does NSIS require establishment personnel to do if they suspect an animal or carcass has a reportable or foreign animal disease?
• The ______ inspector verifies compliance with the HACCP system.
• During FSIS ante-mortem inspection, how are animals observed and how are abnormal animals handled?
• With the FSMA Produce Safety Rule, this regulation extends to hops, wine grapes, pulses, and almonds.
• Transportation of chickens and poultry can lead to increased fecal excretion of which two pathogens, creating aerosol hazards for poultry workers?
• What are the three legs of evidence needed to solve an outbreak?
• Traceback evidence in an outbreak investigation can include which of the following?
• (T/F) Congress gave FDA more authority and strengthened accountability for prevention under FSMA.
• Finfish and crustaceans contamination source is typically:
• Which surface disinfectant is more effective against human norovirus on surfaces?
• During which period are chickens 100 to 1,000 times more susceptible to Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which of the following is a stated purpose of NPIP's national certification program?
• Nosema ceranae is newer and has probably been around since around 1980. Which species is this?
• Where do FSIS carcass inspectors work under NPIS?
• How is Varroa infestation most commonly diagnosed in a colony?
• NAD stands for Nonambulatory Disabled.
• The 'Person, Place, Time' triage factor includes which elements?
• Electron beam irradiation penetrates approximately how many inches into product packaging?
• Which organism is listed as the top contributor to death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• There are vaccines available for E coli O157 in cattle.
• The major eight food allergens include Milk, Eggs, Peanuts, Tree Nuts, Fish, Crustaceans, Wheat, and Soy. Which item is NOT among them?
• How long do worker bees live?
• Which disinfectant is most effective for decontaminating surfaces affected by human norovirus?
• Which two problems are caused by the mycotoxin ergotamine?
• Which of the following is a normal time frame for environmental testing for Salmonella enteritidis in laying hens?
• Which statement about water activity aw is correct?
• The New Poultry Inspection System (NPIS) replaced the Streamlined Inspection System (SIS), New Line Speed Inspection System (NELS), and New Turkey Inspection System (NTIS).
• Less than what percentage of fish is inspected for species authenticity?
• Which HACCP step assesses each step of the process to identify potential food safety hazards and determine those that are reasonably likely to occur?
• Physical testing of each legal pasteurizer is required how often?
• What does NARMS stand for?
• What temperature is required for rapid inactivation of Hepatitis A virus?
• If a VFD expiration date is not specified on the product label, the longest it may be fed is?
• Tropilaelaps mite is associated with which region?
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by using a high quality sequence or genome as a reference to identify differences, this is known as _____________ analysis
• A VFD expiration can be extended beyond 6 months if the veterinarian deems appropriate.
• What is a characteristic symptom of American Foulbrood?
• How many Salmonella enteritidis cells are required to infect a chick at one day old?
• Which bedding for cattle was linked to a higher occurrence of coliform mastitis?
• In the 'US Suspect' designation, what happens to the head and carcass?
• Which statement about food irradiation is correct?
• How is a post-mortem FSIS inspection done?
• What syndrome can Varroa mites cause in a honeybee colony?
• Which organism is associated with Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning in humans?
• What is the sampling minimum for chickens to prevent contamination?
• FDA is responsible for foods not covered by USDA-FSIS. Which category is included in FDA's purview?
• As part of NPIS, young chicken establishments notify FSIS before slaughter of a new flock to allow FSIS inspection for ?
• Which component deals with rapid removal of adulterated or misbranded products from the market?
• Who is the front line of public health in the US public health infrastructure?
• What is a VFD drug?
• What unit is used to express the dose of radiation in food irradiation?
• The RB51 vaccine increases false-positives in cattle serology for Brucellosis.
• In one study, dogs fed raw diets were more likely to shed Salmonella than those not fed raw diets.
• Ergotamine is classified as which type of toxin?
• Why was a federal law enacted in 1975 prohibiting the sale of turtles under 4 inches?
• Which statement best describes the susceptibility of Listeria monocytogenes to irradiation with respect to growth phase?
• Under the FDA Egg Rule, what is the minimum flock size above which egg testing is required?
• Which statement best reflects norovirus shedding in asymptomatic infections?
• How does the presence of oxygen affect food irradiation?
• Untreated surface water may be used to make ice for postharvest activities.
• Which group is least susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning is caused by which organism, and what toxin does it produce?
• A positive phosphatase test on ice cream could indicate which of the following?
• HACCP is?
• Toxocara is a parasite transmissible to humans by swine.
• An outbreak of E. coli O104:H4 in Germany was linked to what product?
• The correct disposition of a bovine tuberculosis reactor carcass without visible lesions of tuberculosis is to:
• The Carcass Inspector performs offline inspection activities under NPIS. True or False?
• With NPIS, continuous online bird by bird inspection is conducted by the FSIS ______.
• Butyric acid and other VFAs belong to which chemical category?
• Which guidelines provide foundation for HACCP?
• Direct contact with animal reservoirs includes exposure to which animals?
• Which statement accurately describes the first step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Big 8 allergens?
• Which areas are usually controlled in pre-requisite programs such as GMPs?
• In the rapid test and slaughter approach for AI H5 outbreaks, the intended response time is approximately how long?
• In recall terminology, which statement is true for Class II recalls?
• Which statement best describes epidemiologic evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• Which process breaks fat globules into smaller particles and prevents cream from rising to the top?
• Probiotics in cattle for E. coli O157 have been shown to be effective. Which statement best characterizes this claim?
• Which typing pattern is used in triaging PulseNet clusters?
• What food is linked to 46% of foodborne illness outbreaks?
• Which statement best describes the clinical symptoms of norovirus infection?
• What is a category I feed use drug?
• Which Vibrio cholerae serogroup consistently produces cholera toxin?
• The phosphatase inactivation curve is used to determine if pasteurization is adequate; what indicates a good result?
• Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of a Food Defense Plan?
• Which of the following could be intentionally added chemicals that may be hazardous if improperly used during food production?
• Which statement about the Turtle size law is true?
• (T/F) VFD drugs are prescription drugs.
• What is the most implicated route of transmission for Hepatitis E virus?
• Which component addresses actions taken after a deviation to prevent recurrence?
• What term describes the action when a product with a minor violation is removed from the market or corrected, such as tampering without evidence of manufacturing or distribution problems?
• Which areas are considered sensitive where driving instruments should never be used?
• High fat content does not impact pasteurization temperatures.
• Since the 2008 proclamation and 2012 finalization, cephalosporin resistance has generally:
• Which is an ante-mortem condition that would remove a pig from ante-mortem inspection for disposal?
• Salmonella enteritidis can be passed from hens to chicks via eggs.
• Pasteurization temperature/times in milk regulation are keyed into destroying which organism?
• Which Salmonella serotype is most commonly associated with shell eggs?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Salmonella in people?
• When does egg production begin in chickens?
• Which statement accurately describes the second step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• A Notice of Suspension means FSIS may suspend inspector assignments at an establishment without prior notification.
• In milk quality testing, which property describes the thickness or flow characteristics of milk?
• To guard against exterior attacks, which practice should a facility consistently perform?
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by comparing a gene-by-gene (locus-by-locus) basis to find differences, this is known as ________________ analysis
• Under NSIS, post-mortem inspection on the line is performed by which personnel?
• Which statement best defines Food Defense?
• Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts are detected in which specimen?
• What does the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance establish?
• What are results of FSIS directed sampling programs used for?
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Hepatitis A?
• Which of the following foods has been rarely linked to foodborne outbreaks?
• Which food is a common source of Salmonella illness?
• What type of food irradiation is ideal for processing whole chickens and turkeys?
• Which of the following is true about the seven HACCP principles?
• Unfertilized eggs in bees develop into?
• Broadly speaking, which antimicrobials were the target of the Veterinary Feed Directive Final Rule?
• SalCURB treatment is described as preventing growth of which organism?
• Which radiation is used to preserve food by ionizing energy?
• Under the FSMA Intentional Adulteration Rule, what is required to maintain a food defense plan?
• Name an example of a radiological hazard.
• Fluoroquinolones are approved for use in poultry.
• What is an example of laboratory evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• At live animal markets in the US, which statement about custom exempt status is true?
• The occurrence of coliform organisms in pasteurized milk indicates which of the following?
• What organism causes ergotism?
• Codex Alimentarius is based in what principle?
• Which item is required on pet food labeling?
• Post-mortem inspections are performed on ante-mortem condemned livestock or birds.
• Which ingredient is explicitly cited as being imported from China and possibly linked to PEDV introduction into the US?
• What properties does the California Mastitis Test assess in milk?
• Which microorganism is most frequently associated with human foodborne illness and can grow in salt concentrations as high as 15%?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five regulatory actions used to stop foodborne outbreaks?
• Which pairing correctly matches organism to the poisoning associated?
• Which statement best describes the Avilamycin example regarding expiration vs duration?
• Which entity provides a national outbreak investigation network by connecting with state and local health departments, USDA, and FDA?
• Pet foods are treated like human foods in that they are pure and wholesome, safe to eat, produced under sanitary conditions, contain no harmful substances, and are truthfully labeled.
• Which of the following is NOT a required element of a recall plan?
• Which hepatitis viruses can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
• What is the typical duration of infection Salmonella in people?
• ________ is the planned sequence of observation to assess CCP control and to produce a record for verification.
• Ciguatera-contaminated fish are typically found in which regions?
• Which option lists the five aggressor types that may cause intentional adulteration?
• What is an example of a VFD drug used to treat American Foulbrood in honeybees?
• What is the causative agent of American Foulbrood?
• Probiotic products must be identified to what taxonomic level?
• What are the actions to take in the event of a foodborne outbreak?
• AGID testing is not recommended for which type of birds according to NPIP?
• In 2007, Cyclospora outbreaks due to fruit juice occurred in which country?
• Abnormal animals during ante-mortem inspection are ______.
• (T/F) VFD drugs require professional oversight by a licensed veterinarian.
• STEC can persist in soil and sediment, making testing of the farm environment feasible after harvest. Where can STEC testing be feasibly conducted?
• The Veterinary Feed Directive affects antimicrobials administered in which forms?
• Which statement about HACCP hazard analysis is true?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the FSMA Food Safety Plan?
• Which agency oversees mostly plant GMOs but also animal drugs, and conducts consultations, oversees New Animal Drug Applications (NADA) and New Drug Applications (NDA), as well as regulation of biological products?
• Relaying in shellfish sanitation refers to which practice?
• Who makes the final disposition call for pigs in a suspect pen?
• Hepatitis A virus has been implicated in outbreaks of which type of food?
• Approximately what percent of water troughs on cattle farms are contaminated with E. coli O157?
• Raw bovine colostrum is regulated as what?
• Which disease is indicated by white, fluffy brood that becomes dry, white mummies?
• How do people get Cyclospora cayetanensis?
• Which of the following is a factor contributing to shellfish contamination with human fecal waste?
• Who must perform all foreign supplier verification program tasks?
• Which classes of recalls typically have press releases?
• Which factor does not affect the diffusion rate of curing ingredients into meat products?
• Which factor is NOT part of the RTC definition?
• Positive predictive value is defined as the proportion of true positives among those who test positive. Which formula correctly expresses PPV?
• The type of Clostridium botulinum associated with growth and toxin formation at lower temperatures is which type?
• A __________ is a point, step, or procedure at which control can be applied and a food safety hazard can be prevented, eliminated, or reduced to acceptable levels.
• Which statement about botulism is correct?
• FSIS veterinarians are in meat and poultry plants in the US every day to ensure that only healthy, wholesome products enter commerce.
• Which statement about the Foreign Agricultural Service is true?
• (T/F) FSMA requires food from abroad to be as safe as domestic.
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne intoxication?
• PulseNet searches for similar patterns in outbreaks over which time frame?
• Histamine-related illness from improperly stored fish is referred to as?
• Which recall classification is defined as a situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences?
• Which sequence describes the recommended hive inspection method?
• The FDA Egg Rule applies to shell eggs sold without processing.
• Which of the following is listed as a benefit of eating fish?
• Vaccinating birds in AI outbreak can eradicate the disease and provide sterilizing immunity.
• Which diagnostic method is used to detect Cyclospora cayetanensis in stool samples?
• Do European Foulbrood larvae rope out?
• Hemolytic uremic syndrome and Guillain-Barre syndrome can come from drinking raw milk.
• A recall where eating the product may cause health problems or death due to hazards such as botulinum toxin or undeclared allergens is a
• Name at least 3 things you can do to reduce the chances of an insider intentional adulteration of a food product.
• What is the term for animals condemned at ante-mortem?
• Which statement about the efficacy of E. coli O157 vaccines in cattle is true?
• Which fish species are commonly implicated in histamine (scombroid) poisoning?
• Which agencies work together to investigate food safety issues and provide a framework for shared oversight at harvest for cell cultured meats?
• FSIS sampling programs are performed for
• Which statement regarding histamine poisoning from fish is true?
• Adult laying hens typically develop clinical disease such as severe diarrhea with Salmonella enteritidis infection.
• If a flock testing positive for Salmonella enteritidis engages in egg testing and one of the four consecutive samples tests positive again, what action is required?
• Which option best describes the 'General subject matter' Codex committee type?
• CaliciNet is the national database that contains what type of data?
• PFGE is still being used for subtyping most pathogens in surveillance except?
• Which of the following pathogens is commonly linked to seafood such as raw oysters?
• Which hazards are addressed by HACCP?
• Which seafood category is most implicated in foodborne illness and why?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the seven major FSMA provisions?
• What is a category II feed-use drug?
• If there is no growth in food, there is no toxin and therefore no illness in which foodborne condition?
• What VFD drug is currently approved to treat swine to reduce diarrhea associated with E. coli?
• Vaccination for AI H5 is not a preferred option of control because of trade issues.
• Which organism is specifically identified as associated with raw milk outbreaks during 1993-2006 among the most common pathogens?
• Molting increases susceptibility to Salmonella enteritidis infection by how much?
• What are the two types of 'terrorists' to consider in vulnerability assessments?
• In poultry, if antimicrobial interventions are used, chilling must be done mainly by ________.
• Vibrio vulnificus infection risk is particularly high in individuals with underlying liver disease.
• NSIS requires establishments to maintain records on the total number of animals and carcasses sorted and removed per day, and the reason for their removal.
• Refrigeration completely prevents growth and survival of Listeria in raw milk.
• Fumagilin B is approved in the United States for Nosema treatment in honeybees.
• Campylobacter rate in chicken parts as reported is:
• FSIS designates a poultry operation as Category 3 if establishments have exceeded the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive during any completed 52-week moving window over the last three months.
• Which term describes the system used to identify hazards and establish control points to ensure food safety?
• Which disease is specifically treated with a VFD-approved drug in honeybees?
• Which of the following is a Grade A dairy product?
• Longer and flatter epidemic curves lasting months are typically due to which type of product/outbreaks?
• Which outcome indicates a carcass is not suitable for human consumption?
• _______ is those activities, other than monitoring, that determine the validity of the HACCP plan and that the system is operating according to the plan.
• What percentage of raw milk outbreaks were caused by Shiga toxin producing E. coli during 2007-2012?
• Which statement about raw milk outbreaks is true?
• Which statement about PMO adoption by states is true?
• Under the Produce Safety Rule, agricultural water must be safe and of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use.
• Which item is a long shelf life product?
• Which seafood category is typically contaminated due to infected food handlers rather than environmental contamination?
• Under NPIS, there is zero tolerance for off-line carcasses to have which two things?
• A Standard Plate Count in milk quality refers to which of the following?
• Tuna and Mackerel can cause which foodborne toxicity?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Salmonella in people?
• Which crop is NOT listed among crops with high GMO shares (88-95%) in the United States?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of processed meats?
• Before the chiller, carcasses are presented to inspectors after processing in what ways?
• Postharvest water uses must have no detectable generic E. coli per 100 mL for which usage?
• A vaccine exists for RB51 Brucellosis.
• Eggs held on farm for more than 36 hours after laying must be kept at what temperature to minimize Salmonella enteritidis growth?
• Who issues the Veterinary Feed Directive?
• Which vascular change was reported in the pathology of the diseased fish?
• Under NSIS, the establishment must identify animals or carcasses that have been sorted and removed for disposal before inspection. Which of the following is a valid method to do this?
• All worker bees are what gender?
• What is a significant change to product recalls under FSMA?
• Grade A milk that consistently shows bacteria counts in excess of the legally acceptable maximum should be:
• Toxoplasma is a parasite transmissible to humans by swine.
• Which statement about FDA regulation of GMO salmon is correct?
• The oversight at harvest for livestock and poultry cells for cell cultured meats is shared by which arrangement?
• Which animal is listed as a common source of Trichinella in humans?
• Which group is NOT listed among the major insider threats?
• More birds around cattle farms have been shown to have an increased prevalence of E. coli O157.
• In HACCP, which term describes activities other than monitoring that determine the validity of the HACCP plan and that the system is operating according to the plan?
• What does 'Passed for cooking' indicate in meat inspection?
• What is the requirement for distributors to notify the FDA concerning VFD drugs?
• When was the Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) passed?
• Pupal cappings in healthy brood are described as which of the following?
• Which agency is primarily responsible for risk management and regulation in food safety outbreaks?
• Which statement about offline verification inspectors under NSIS is correct?
• The NPIS final rule includes a provision that prescribes maximum line speed rates under the NPIS to emphasize establishments' existing legal obligation to comply with OSHA laws.
• Which statement about Scombroid (scrombrotoxin) poisoning is incorrect?
• (T/F) Gamma rays can be used to irradiate food.
• Which of the following is NOT a pasteurization variant?
• Nonambulatory animals must be separated from ambulatory animals to be slaughter, and have shelter provided.
• Mitigation strategies in a Food Defense Plan typically include which elements?
• How is Hepatitis A diagnosed?
• Which statement best defines Food Safety?
• What are the clinical signs of ciguatera toxin in people?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Big 8 allergens?
• Under the Foreign Supplier Verification Program, it is possible for third parties to certify suppliers.
• What category does an animal intended for slaughter belong to?
• What is a pre-harvest food safety practice used to protect consumers from drug residues in animals?
• Bioterrorism becomes a choice of a terrorist organization when?
• The ionizing radiation used to preserve food is which form?
• What are four common clinical signs of human infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which agency has primary oversight for cell cultured meat products?
• Which of the following groups is NOT among the highest risk for Salmonellosis?
• How long does a honeybee queen live?
• Foodborne illness is mostly just a stomach ache.
• According to the FDA Compliance Policy Guide 555.425 what is the range of length (in mm) that is considered a hazard for the general public?
• Which of the following organisms was NOT among the top three causes of raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• What is the age at which peak shedding occurs in laying hen flocks infected with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Participation in NPIP is voluntary; participants must agree to meet standards if they choose to participate.
• Paenibacillus larvae is best described as what type of organism?
• The standard HTST for pasteurization (161 F for 15 seconds) is required to be increased for higher content products like heavy cream or eggnog.
• Compared with bacteria, viruses typically have which relative infectious dose?
• Codex Alimentarius is produced by which organizations?
• Which step involves controlling the outbreak?
• Which of the following is a potential drawback of GMOs?
• Which of the following is among the six recommendations to reduce outbreaks at live animal markets?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the ante-mortem removal criteria?
• The statement 'Raw manure can be applied directly to the harvestable portion of the crop if it is not harvested until 3 days later' is:
• The Salmonella cholerasuis vaccine used in swine is best described as which of the following?
• What is the term for removing contaminated products from the market during a foodborne outbreak?
• What is the term for actions taken to return a process to control and to handle products affected by a deviation at a CCP?
• Why is prevention particularly important for shellfish and fresh produce?
• Which physical parameter is observed on the phosphatase inactivation curve?
• Which of the following is NOT an objective of HACCP?
• The NSIS implemented maximum line speeds.
• Which three portions of every pig must be inspected in both traditional and NSIS?
• Mahimahi and sardines can cause scrombroid toxicity.
• Which statement about Hepatitis E and Influenza in swine is accurate?
• What class of antibiotic is specifically screened for in milk using FDA/NCIMS-approved tests?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in chicken parts samples?
• 84% of labeled 'white tuna' in a US study were actually which fish?
• House mice are highly susceptible to Salmonella enteritidis. Which statement is accurate?
• What type of food irradiation is ideal for ground beef patties?
• Which of the following is NOT a common clinical sign of human infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which statement best describes why large batches are a higher terrorism risk factor?
• How often must the Food Safety Plan be reviewed under FSMA?
• All FSIS inspected meat and poultry plants operate under HACCP.
• A recall in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences is called a
• PRP stands for what in HACCP context?
• What is the principal reservoir for nontyphoidal Salmonella enterica serotypes?
• What is the typical duration of Campylobacter infection in people?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Campylobacter in people?
• Chickens infected with Salmonella enteritidis at 1 day old will have persistent intestinal colonization, and by 24 weeks, about 50% will shed Salmonella enteritidis in their feces.
• Vibrio parahaemolyticus is commonly associated with which source?
• Which FSMA provision requires verification of foreign supplier compliance?
• Hepatitis A can cause fulminant hepatitis and relapsing hepatitis.
• Which recall class covers situations such as a minor container defect or lack of English labeling that are unlikely to cause health consequences?
• Under FSMA preventive controls requirements, food facilities are required to have a ______.
• Under the National Poultry Improvement Plan, breeder sources of laying hens should be clean free of Salmonella enteritidis.
• In HACCP, a CCP is a step at which control measures are applied to prevent, eliminate, or reduce a food safety hazard to an acceptable level.
• Under FSMA, a Food Safety Plan must include hazard analysis, preventative controls, and which of the following?
• Which statement about RTC definitions is NOT correct?
• How many Salmonella enteritidis cells are required to infect a chick at 3 weeks?
• During HTST pasteurization of milk, which condition is correct according to PMO regulations?
• Which of the following is NOT a stated reason to handle livestock humanely?
• Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDV) can live and be transmitted by feed.
• Which of the following is an example of a pre-harvest food safety practice?
• Which country currently dominates aquaculture?
• Composting for use on produce must be a ________ process.
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a common source of Listeria monocytogenes?
• For cell cultured meats, which agency would oversee final products including cultured fish cells?
• Which of the following is a recommended practice to reduce insider adulteration risk?
• What created internationally accepted standards for food production and safety?
• Which organism is commonly associated with bacterial foodborne illness such as listeriosis?
• The United States imports nearly what percentage of its seafood consumption?
• What is the best way to work with bees if you must examine the hive?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the primary objectives of NARMS?
• Verification/Validation activities involve which of the following?
• Which crop has approximately 88% GMO share in the United States?
• The maximum and/or minimum value to which a parameter must be controlled at a CCP is defined as the __________.
• Which statement about NPIS is NOT true?
• Which HACCP principle will include a summary of your hazard analysis, your written HACCP plan, support documentation, and records generated during plant operation?
• FSMA introduced which of the following enforcement tools?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a consumer prevention strategy for Salmonella?
• What is the final step in the seven-step outbreak investigation?
• Which regulatory body handles New Animal Drug Applications (NADA) and New Drug Applications (NDA)?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized option for flocks testing positive for Salmonella enteritidis?
• How many diseases/pests are considered by the OIE for honeybees that can be introduced through international commerce?
• (T/F) With FSMA, FDA can rely on third parties to certify foreign food facilities meet US requirements.
• Salmonella enteritidis is considered to have a silent spread in poultry houses.
• Which of the following is not typically considered a critical limit parameter?
• Staphylococcus aureus illness typically presents with which onset after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin?
• Which statement best describes the factors defining the source/quality for production water?
• In what year was Codex Alimentarius established?
• Trypanosomiasis can be acquired via ingestion of contaminated food or drink.
• True or False: Raw bovine colostrum has been associated with foodborne disease outbreaks.
• In a vulnerability assessment, which of the following is considered?
• Which statement best describes how to minimize growth of Salmonella enteritidis in eggs after laying?
• Which of the following is a way FSMA enhanced partnerships with the FDA?
• Which of the following is true about the 5 non-foodborne transmission routes list?
• Which of the following is a common source of Clostridium botulinum in humans?
• Which operation would be Category 1 under the specified criteria?
• Which of the following are symptoms of Nosema infection?
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne intoxication?
• Which Vibrio species is typically associated with seafood and gastroenteritis after eating raw or undercooked shellfish?
• Which population is most at risk for foodborne illness?
• Hepatitis A virus causes about how many deaths per year in the United States?
• The statement 'Human waste may be used on produce crops only if it meets EPA biosolids regulation (40 CFR part 503)' is:
• Prevention approaches for Cyclospora outbreaks include which two broad categories?
• In an outbreak investigation, it is not just asking ill people what they ate, but also understanding how food is prepared at the menu or ingredient level.
• Recently, a Campylobacter outbreak was associated with chicken liver. Why?
• Which statement best reflects the requirement regarding unconsciousness after stunning?
• Ultra Pasteurized (UP) milk is heated to not less than 280°F for two seconds.
• What is the primary mechanism by which irradiation kills microorganisms?
• Which technique provides a higher resolution view of the bacterial genome?
• Which of the following is a genus of cyanobacteria?
• Which measure helps prevent farm-to-farm spread of avian influenza?
• Public concern about GMO salmon production is primarily related to what issue?
• Animals in a stable physiologic state are generally resistant to Salmonellosis due to what (molecular level)?
• Which statement best describes VFD drugs?
• Which of the following is a common source of Toxoplasma gondii?
• Which organism accounted for the largest proportion of raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• Stunning of poultry prior to slaughter is required.
• Fertilized eggs in honey bees will develop into which caste(s)?
• Which of the following is an example of a radiological hazard?
• Which of the following is a parasite of concern in fresh produce?
• FSIS labeling for cell cultured meats requires preapproval and verification.
• Which mite is foreign to the United States?
• The mission of the ______ is to ensure the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and processed egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labelled and packaged.
• FSIS uses what time frame to evaluate percent positive for Salmonella or Campylobacter in poultry operations?
• The phosphatase inactivation curve measures the activity of which enzyme in milk?
• About how many people die of foodborne illness in the United States each year?
• Which of the following is NOT a synthetic acaricide used for Varroa control?
• Which component of a Food Defense Plan focuses on identifying how a contamination could occur?
• Which two metrics are used to evaluate production water?
• Which of the following is exempt from the Foreign Supplier Verification Program (FSVP) rule?
• In 2005 in Santa Catarina, what were the reported outcomes of the Cyclospora outbreak linked to sugar cane juice?
• What internal cooking temperature should chicken liver reach to avoid infection?
• ____________ is that element of verification focused on collecting and evaluating scientific and technical information to determine if the HACCP plan, when properly implemented, will effectively control the hazards.
• Vibrio vulnificus septicemia is most likely to occur in which population?
• What are the two most common serotypes of Salmonella?
• Under FSMA, a food that is imported and then exported without leaving the port of arrival until export is exempt from the Prior Notice rule. True or false?
• In the described Seriola rivoliana outbreak, what deficiency is implicated as the diagnosis?
• When a fixed sterilization temperature is used, which statement about initial contamination is generally correct?
• Which animals are observed in motion from both sides during ante-mortem inspection?
• Which entity provides a national outbreak response team that works with state and local health departments, USDA, and FDA?
• In turned composting, what is the minimum number of turns during the active phase before curing?
• Which of the following is not listed as a Hepatitis A prevention measure?
• Codex promotes coordination of all food standards work undertaken by international governments and NGOs.
• Which Vibrio species is most associated with severe infection in people with liver disease?
• Which statement is true about Tilmicosin's VFD uses?
• Which of the following is a foodborne pathogen commonly linked to deli meats and soft cheeses?
• Which of the following lists the three elements to establishing corrective actions in HACCP?
• Salmonella Typhi is primarily associated with which source?
• Which of the following are examples of physical hazards?
• Substitution for a generic VFD is allowed if it is not specifically stated on the VFD that it is NOT allowed.
• Which act mandates labeling of allergens?
• Which of the following is NOT an objective of the NPIP?
• T/F: The mission of the USDA FSIS includes verifying humane treatment of livestock and fair treatment of poultry.
• Under the VFD Final Rule, the overall purpose is to limit antimicrobial use to what?
• Which statement accurately describes the fourth step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• Which of the following is a human-specific agent that can contaminate food via human waste contaminating the food supply?
• Outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis are commonly related to waterborne outbreaks and which other category?
• A friend who dined at a seafood restaurant 3 hours ago calls to describe experiencing tingling and numbness of lips, tongue and fingertips. These symptoms suggest an etiologic agent of:
• How do shellfish fit into sanitation programs?
• A vaccine exists for Hepatitis A virus.
• If confirmed positive, the milk must be discarded and the producer pays for the load of milk.
• Sea lions showing seizures and disorientation are associated with poisoning by which toxin?
• Which of the following lists three indicators of an insider threat to watch for in an employee?
• Which Salmonella serotype is commonly found in chicken and chicken eggs?
• States can adopt PMO in part.
• Which bacterial pathogen is listed as carried by swine?
• What are 4 post mortem conditions that would mark carcass for disposal?
• The value of salt as a meat curing agent is primarily demonstrated by which property?
• A 'qualified individual' for FSVP tasks must have what qualifications?
• Which of the following is a comprehensive prevention measure for Salmonella enteritidis in chickens?
• Which statement best describes Food Defense objectives?
• States regulate all milk products produced and sold within state lines but sales over state lines are under federal oversight.
• Which condition reduces chlorine's bactericidal effect when sanitizing utensils?
• Which of the following is an extrinsic factor influencing microbial survival in foods?
• How does an electron beam irradiate food?
• Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with honey produced from rhododendrons. Which option lists this exposure correctly?
• What is the treatment for Cyclospora cayetanensis?
• Which of the following is not an intermediate or end product of aerobic metabolism?
• Which factor would cause the Standard Plate Count to increase in milk samples?
• Ultra High Temperature (UHT) processing of milk is used to achieve which outcome?
• Which diatom genus produces domoic acid?
• Nosema disease is best described as which of the following?
• Florfenicol is a VFD drug approved for treatment of which animals?
• Porcine stress syndrome results from what condition?
• Why is bioterrorism in food an attractive strategy?
• Vaccination of birds in event of AI outbreak is expected to do which of the following?
• Why was the NPIP established?
• Which HACCP principle's purpose is to prevent foods which may be hazardous from reaching consumers due to deviations from established critical limits?
• The New Swine Slaughter Inspection System NSIS is a mandatory part of the Modernization for Swine Slaughter final rule.
• Which HACCP principle involves confirming that the HACCP system is functioning effectively?
• VHSV stands for which of the following?
• As part of NSIS, establishment personnel are required to sort and remove unfit animals before FSIS ante-mortem inspection.
• Radiological hazards are a type of which hazard?
• Compared with raw milk, pasteurized milk has which nutritional difference?
• Which two tests, aside from the California Mastitis Test, are used to test viscosity of milk?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the major eight food allergens?
• Which statement best describes the prevalence data for Campylobacter in poultry and swine?
• A VFD must include the approximate number of animals, but not the amount of feed to be fed. True or False?
• FDA treats foods derived from GMOs like those from conventionally bred plants and classifies them as generally recognized as safe.
• Which of the following is NOT a reported way avian influenza is spread?
• Which statement best describes FSIS's role in the USDA?
• When generating hypothesis, what information do you want to collect (3)?
• Which type of bias occurs when the method of data collection leads to systematic differences between groups?
• Which fish are specifically mentioned as linked to scrombroid toxicity?
• Which statement is correct regarding infection and intoxication in foodborne illness?
• Which pathogen is commonly linked to poultry?
• A critical limit distinguishes between safe and unsafe operating conditions at a CCP.
• In triaging PulseNet clusters, which item is considered?
• Which Salmonella serotype has a broad host range and is common?
• Under traditional swine inspection, what is the maximum number of FSIS food inspectors conducting line inspections?
• Nitrite in bacon is currently a public health concern because which statement is true?
• Which antibiotic is the only one listed as a medicated feed product for honeybees?
• What is the best description of the difference between a CCP and a prerequisite in HACCP hazard control?
• What term describes an act or condition that results in severe harm to animals, such as allowing stunned animals to regain consciousness?
• What brings about completion of rigor mortis?
• A common source of Salmonella Enteritidis is
• Which FSMA rule establishes a voluntary program for accrediting third-party auditors to conduct food safety audits and certify foreign facilities?
• Under NPIS, unacceptable carcasses are removed where?
• How long must a veterinarian keep copies of all VFD orders on file?
• Which carcass type is exposed to the most microbial contamination during fabrication?
• Under NSIS, there was a shift from which group on the line inspecting to which?
• European Foulbrood has a longer larval susceptible window than American Foulbrood.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three elements of establishing corrective actions in HACCP?
• In HACCP terminology, a hazard refers to?
• Which agencies regulate antimicrobial use in animal feed in the United States?
• A recall in which eating the food will not cause adverse health consequences (e.g., minor container defect, lack of English labeling in a retail food) is called a
• What does VFD stand for?
• Preventative controls with HACCP are primarily concerned with controlling the ______.
• Regulations on raw milk vary by state.
• The microorganism most resistant to ionizing radiation is:
• Which of the following are recommended methods for preventing Cyclospora cayetanensis outbreaks?
• According to 9 CFR guidelines, nonambulatory livestock may be stun or humanely euthanized in place.
• Which statement best describes the effect of homogenization on milk fat?
• What is true about ready-to-eat foods and terrorism risk, according to the material?
• Under NSIS, who is required to sort carcasses and parts that are presented to an FSIS on-line inspector for post mortem inspection?
• Which of the following is used as a fecal indicator in dairy product testing?
• How does a VFD differ from a traditional prescription in terms of oversight?
• Gambierdiscus toxicus belongs to which group?
• Which statement is most accurate about norovirus infections?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes foodborne illness from foodborne intoxication?
• Who does the Salmonella Verification Testing Program apply to?
• Ciguatera toxin is derived from which organism?
• Which toxin is produced by Karenia brevis that causes neurotoxic shellfish poisoning?
• FDA has approved the sale and production of GMO salmon in the United States.
• Tylosin and Lincomycin are available over-the-counter drugs to treat honeybees.
• How do X-rays irradiate food?
• Who provides the risk identification in an outbreak?
• Which fish is associated with digestive issues when eaten in large amounts?
• What threshold defines Category 3 in the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• Which term is used when the association between two variables is due to the influence of a third variable?
• Under 9 CFR, livestock must have feed provided if held over how many hours?
• How long do Salmonellosis symptoms typically last in people?
• PulseNet creates DNA fingerprints of bacteria isolated from ill persons using pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE).
• FSMA expanded records access to improve recalls and traceability.
• Which of the following is included in the Egg Safety Rule's preventative measures in poultry houses?
• Which statement best describes the public health relevance of fallout radiation through food consumption?
• Which component addresses taking corrective actions when deviations occur?
• What type of foodborne hazards broadly include pesticides, additives, and adulterants?
• FSIS will designate a poultry operation of raw chicken parts/not ready to eat comminuted poultry as category ____ if they have achieved 50 percent or less of the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive during all completed 52‐week moving windows over the last three months.
• A recall category defined by a reasonable probability that use or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death is called a
• With the final rule for Modernization of Swine Slaughter Inspection, what is the mandatory component that all slaughter plants must adhere to now?
• Which pathogen was the most common cause of outbreaks from unpasteurized milk between 1990-2006?
• What is the standard percentage for the Salmonella verification threshold?
• Classic bell-shaped epidemic curves lasting weeks to months are typically associated with which type of product/outbreak?
• Which statement about FSIS regulated products is true?
• E. coli O157:H7 illness is most often linked to which category?
• Which of the following are examples of prerequisite programs for a HACCP plan?
• Which legislation was instrumental in reducing the amount of trichinellosis in humans?
• Honeybees are regulated as food animals by which agency and under which act?